a client has been prescribed enoxaparin which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding self administration
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A client has been prescribed enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding self-administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to pinch the skin and inject at a 45-degree angle when administering enoxaparin. This technique helps ensure proper administration of the medication. Massaging the injection site after administering is unnecessary and could increase the risk of bleeding. Administering at a 90-degree angle is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent tissue damage and irritation.

2. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

5. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation and notes that the client has gained 5 pounds in one week. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preeclampsia. Rapid weight gain, especially in the third trimester, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. This requires immediate medical attention. Choice B, Gestational diabetes, is incorrect because rapid weight gain is not a typical symptom of gestational diabetes. Choice C, Anemia, is incorrect as weight gain is not a common sign of anemia in pregnancy. Choice D, Placenta previa, is also incorrect because weight gain is not a typical symptom of this condition, which involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix.

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