a 73 year old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall in reviewing hip precautions with
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.

2. A client with brain cancer is transferring to hospice care. The client's son tells the nurse, 'I don’t know what to tell my dad if he asks how he is going to die.' Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choosing option D, 'Try to help your dad enjoy this time as much as he can,' is the most appropriate response by the nurse. This response shows empathy and compassion towards the client and their family during this difficult transition. The focus on supporting the client in enjoying their remaining time reflects a holistic approach to care. Options A, B, and C are not the best responses in this situation. Option A could lead to unnecessary details that might be overwhelming for the family. Option B shifts the responsibility to the social worker without providing immediate support. Option C deflects the son's concerns to another healthcare professional when emotional support is needed.

3. When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a transfer belt if the client is unsteady is essential to provide added safety and support during ambulation. This device helps the nurse assist the client in maintaining balance and prevents falls. Walking beside the client without support (choice B) may not offer enough assistance for a frail, older adult who is unsteady. Encouraging the client to use a walker (choice C) could be helpful in some cases, but if the client is unsteady during ambulation, additional support like a transfer belt is more appropriate. Holding the client's arm for support (choice D) may not provide enough stability and safety compared to using a transfer belt.

4. A client has been diagnosed with terminal cancer. Which of the following interventions is a priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client receives a terminal cancer diagnosis, it is crucial to prioritize developing a list of goals with the client. This process helps the client focus on what is important to them, set achievable objectives, and maintain a sense of purpose and control. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice A) may be beneficial for symptom management but is not the priority when confronting a terminal illness. While finding a local support group (choice B) can be valuable for emotional support, it does not directly address setting goals. Discussing prior coping mechanisms (choice C) can provide insights into the client's coping strategies but may not be as essential as establishing future goals in the face of a terminal illness.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

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