Nursing Elites

1. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
• B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
• C. Ineffective coping related to denial
• D. Decisional conflict due to stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

2. After 2 days of treatment for dehydration, a child continues to vomit and have diarrhea. Normal saline is infusing, and the child’s urine output is 50ml/hour. During morning assessment, the nurse determines that the child is lethargic and difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Perform a finger stick glucose test
• B. Increase the IV fluid flow rate
• C. Review 24-hour intake and output
• D. Obtain arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy and difficulty arousing may indicate hypoglycemia, which should be assessed before other actions. Performing a finger stick glucose test is crucial to evaluate the child's blood sugar levels and address hypoglycemia promptly. Increasing the IV fluid flow rate is not indicated without knowing the glucose status. Reviewing 24-hour intake and output is important but not the priority when lethargy and difficulty arousing are present. Obtaining arterial blood gases is not the primary assessment needed in this situation.

3. A nurse who works in the nursery is attending the vaginal delivery of a term infant. What action should the nurse complete before leaving the delivery room?

• A. Obtain the infant's vital signs.
• B. Observe the infant latching onto the breast.
• C. Administer a vitamin K injection.
• D. Place the ID bands on the infant and mother.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing ID bands on the infant and mother is crucial to ensure correct identification and prevent mix-ups. This step is essential for maintaining proper identification of the newborn and the mother, facilitating safe care delivery. Before leaving the delivery room, ensuring proper identification is a priority to prevent any errors. Obtaining the infant's vital signs may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring correct identification. Observing the infant latching onto the breast is crucial for breastfeeding initiation but can be done after proper identification. Administering a vitamin K injection is also important but should not delay the immediate identification process.

4. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
• C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
• D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

5. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
• B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
• C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
• D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.

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