a 45 year old woman presents with fatigue weight gain and constipation laboratory tests reveal high tsh and low free t4 levels what is the most likely
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Nursing Elites

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Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of high TSH and low free T4 levels is consistent with hypothyroidism, which matches the patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a decrease in metabolic rate and resulting in these clinical findings.

2. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

3. Which client's laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden drop in neutrophil count to below 500 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infections. Neutrophils are essential for fighting off infections, and a significant decrease in their count can compromise the client's immune response. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent the development of serious infections in the client with neutropenia.

4. Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In children, ringing in the ears (tinnitus) can be a sign of aspirin toxicity. Aspirin toxicity can be particularly concerning in children and can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize monitoring for signs of aspirin toxicity, such as tinnitus, and promptly notify the healthcare provider if such symptoms occur.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

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