a 45 year old woman presents with fatigue weight gain and constipation laboratory tests reveal high tsh and low free t4 levels what is the most likely
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of high TSH and low free T4 levels is consistent with hypothyroidism, which matches the patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a decrease in metabolic rate and resulting in these clinical findings.

2. Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In children, ringing in the ears (tinnitus) can be a sign of aspirin toxicity. Aspirin toxicity can be particularly concerning in children and can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize monitoring for signs of aspirin toxicity, such as tinnitus, and promptly notify the healthcare provider if such symptoms occur.

3. Your patient has an order to receive Levothyroxine Sodium 75 mcg daily IV. You have a vial containing 100 mcg available from the pharmacy. According to the package insert, 5 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is needed to reconstitute. You add the appropriate amount of sodium chloride to the vial. How many mcg of medication are in 1 mL of the vial?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of Levothyroxine Sodium in the vial is 100 mcg in 5 mL, which equals 20 mcg/mL. Therefore, in 1 mL of the vial, there are 20 mcg of medication.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving prednisone (Deltasone). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Infection. Prednisone is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in COPD to reduce inflammation. Due to its immunosuppressive effects, clients are at an increased risk of developing infections. Therefore, nurses should closely monitor clients receiving prednisone for signs and symptoms of infections to provide timely interventions.

5. A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain in a patient with atrial fibrillation, along with a soft abdomen and minimal tenderness on examination, suggest mesenteric ischemia due to embolic occlusion of the mesenteric arteries. This condition is characterized by a sudden and severe decrease in blood flow to the intestines, leading to abdominal pain and tenderness. Acute pancreatitis typically presents with epigastric pain that may radiate to the back, accompanied by elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Peptic ulcer disease and diverticulitis usually do not manifest with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain as described in the case.

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