HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A 3-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for 'scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night.' Based on these complaints, the nurse would initially assess for which problem?
- A. Allergies
- B. Scabies
- C. Regression
- D. Pinworms
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Pinworms. Pinworms are a common cause of itching around the anal area, especially at night, in young children. Scratching the bottom and bedwetting can be indicative of a pinworm infection. Allergies (Choice A) are less likely given the symptoms described. Scabies (Choice B) may cause itching but is less common in causing bedwetting. Regression (Choice C) is not a common cause of these specific symptoms in a 3-year-old child.
2. A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. What should the nurse implement?
- A. Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery.
- B. Delegate all tasks to assistive personnel.
- C. Focus on completing tasks in the order they are assigned.
- D. Avoid using a checklist for daily tasks.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery is crucial for effective time management. By prioritizing tasks based on client needs and acuity levels, the nurse can ensure that the most critical care is provided in a timely manner. Choice B is incorrect because while delegation is important, not all tasks can be delegated, and the nurse is ultimately responsible for the care provided. Choice C is incorrect as completing tasks in the order they are assigned may not align with the urgency of client needs. Choice D is incorrect as using a checklist can help the nurse stay organized and ensure that all necessary tasks are completed.
3. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?
- A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
- B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
- C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
- D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.
4. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?
- A. Feet
- B. Nail beds
- C. Perineum
- D. Oral cavity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?
- A. 1 ml.
- B. 1.5 ml.
- C. 1.75 ml.
- D. 2 ml.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access