Nursing Elites

1. Your 54-year-old male HIV-positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient?

• A. Bathe the patient, but it is still necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased.
• B. Place the patient in a negative pressure isolated area of the morgue.
• C. Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Even after a patient has expired, standard precautions should be maintained to prevent the spread of infection. Bathing the deceased patient should be done using the same standard precautions followed when the patient was alive. This includes using personal protective equipment and following proper infection control procedures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because standard precautions must still be adhered to even after the patient has passed away to ensure safety and prevent the transmission of infections.

2. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?

• A. Pertussis
• B. Group B streptococcal disease
• C. Respiratory syncytial virus
• D. Rotavirus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.

3. Based on the signs and symptoms of erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac problems, and skin nodules in your 32-year-old female patient, what disorder would you most likely suspect?

• A. Leukemia
• B. Histoplasmosis
• C. Pneumocystis jiroveci
• D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The signs and symptoms described point towards rheumatoid arthritis. Erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea, epistaxis, abdominal pain, fever, cardiac issues, and skin nodules are classic manifestations of rheumatic fever, which is a complication of untreated streptococcal infection. This condition can lead to rheumatoid arthritis over time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the provided signs and symptoms, and they are not associated with the clinical presentation described.

4. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

• A. No change
• B. Less insulin
• C. More insulin
• D. Oral antidiabetic agents

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.

5. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

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