Nursing Elites

1. You are called to a residence for a 'sick' 5-year-old child. When you arrive and begin your assessment, you note that the child is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Management of this child should consist of

• A. 100% oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask and rapid transport
• B. positive pressure ventilations with a BVM device and rapid transport
• C. chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport
• D. back blows and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 5-year-old child who is unconscious with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min, the priority is to initiate chest compressions, artificial ventilations, and rapid transport. These vital interventions are crucial in cases of severe respiratory and cardiovascular compromise. Choice A is incorrect because administering 100% oxygen alone may not address the underlying issues of inadequate ventilation and circulatory support. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention in this scenario; chest compressions should precede positive pressure ventilations. Choice D is incorrect as back blows and chest thrusts are indicated in choking emergencies, not in this case of respiratory and cardiovascular compromise.

2. A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?

• A. Flat occiput
• B. Small, low-set ears
• C. Circumoral cyanosis
• D. Protruding furrowed tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment because it may indicate inadequate oxygenation or circulation, potentially related to cardiac or respiratory issues. Flat occiput (choice A) is a common finding in infants and is not typically concerning. Small, low-set ears (choice B) are common in Down syndrome and not specifically indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate further assessment. Protruding furrowed tongue (choice D) is also commonly seen in infants with Down syndrome and typically does not warrant immediate further assessment unless associated with other concerning signs or symptoms.

3. A child with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitoring for hypertension
• B. Providing pain relief
• C. Restricting fluid intake
• D. Encouraging fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for hypertension. Acute glomerulonephritis involves inflammation of the kidney's glomeruli, potentially leading to impaired kidney function and elevated blood pressure. Monitoring for hypertension is crucial as it is a common complication of this condition. Providing pain relief (choice B) may be necessary for comfort but is not the priority. While fluid restriction (choice C) is important in some kidney conditions, in acute glomerulonephritis, maintaining adequate hydration to support kidney function is typically recommended. Encouraging fluid intake (choice D) may exacerbate fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.

4. A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?

• A. Flat occiput
• B. Small, low-set ears
• C. Circumoral cyanosis
• D. Protruding furrowed tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform further assessment in a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome. This finding may indicate cardiac or respiratory issues, such as inadequate oxygenation. Small, low-set ears and a protruding furrowed tongue are common physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome and may not necessarily warrant immediate further assessment. A flat occiput is a normal variation in infant anatomy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in this context.

5. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.

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