Nursing Elites

1. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

2. The nurse is teaching a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about dietary modifications. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Applesauce
• B. White rice
• C. Coffee
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Coffee. Coffee should be avoided by clients with GERD as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to an increase in GERD symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with worsening GERD symptoms and can be included in moderation in the diet of a client with GERD.

3. The health care provider is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?

• A. When the course of antibiotics is complete
• B. When a negative CNS culture is obtained
• C. When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
• D. When the child has no symptoms of the disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a child with bacterial meningitis should be isolated for at least 24 hours until antibiotic therapy has been initiated. This period allows the antibiotics to start working against the infection, reducing the risk of spreading it to others. Choice A is incorrect because isolation is not solely based on completing the course of antibiotics; the initiation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as waiting for a negative CNS culture may take longer and delay necessary precautions. Choice D is incorrect as symptom resolution does not guarantee the eradication of the infection and may still pose a risk of transmission.

4. A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion.
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture.
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation.
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.

5. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
• B. Reposition the client for comfort.
• C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.

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