Nursing Elites

1. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

2. How often should the casts be changed for a newborn with talipes who is wearing casts?

• A. Daily
• B. Weekly
• C. Biweekly
• D. Monthly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weekly. Treatment of talipes involves manipulation and applying short leg casts. The casts need to be changed weekly to allow for further manipulation and to accommodate the rapid growth of the infant. Changing the casts daily (choice A) would be too frequent and may not provide enough time for the correction to take place. Changing the casts biweekly (choice C) or monthly (choice D) would not provide adequate support for the ongoing correction process required for talipes.

3. A young adult client, admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs. The client’s pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all PRBCs have been transfused?

• A. 23%
• B. 25%
• C. 27%
• D. 29%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One unit of PRBCs typically raises the hematocrit by 3%. Since the client received 4 units, the hematocrit is expected to increase by approximately 12% (4 units x 3% per unit). Therefore, the nurse should expect the client's hematocrit to be 29% after all PRBCs have been transfused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not account for the cumulative effect of multiple PRBC units on the hematocrit level.

4. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

• A. A history of diarrhea following each feeding
• B. Gastric pain evidenced by vigorous crying
• C. Poor appetite due to a poor sucking reflex
• D. An olive-shaped mass right of the midline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

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