Nursing Elites

1. Which statement accurately describes the electron cloud model of the atom?

• A. Electrons precisely orbit the nucleus in defined paths.
• B. Electrons occupy specific energy levels around the nucleus with varying probabilities.
• C. Electrons are clustered tightly within the nucleus.
• D. Electrons move randomly throughout the entire atom.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The electron cloud model of the atom describes electrons as occupying specific energy levels around the nucleus with varying probabilities. This model does not suggest that electrons precisely orbit in defined paths as stated in option A. It acknowledges the wave-like behavior of electrons and their uncertainty in position, which is not accounted for in options C and D. Option C is incorrect as electrons are not clustered tightly within the nucleus but exist in the space surrounding the nucleus. Option D is incorrect as electrons do not move randomly throughout the entire atom but have specific probabilities of being found in different regions based on their energy levels. Therefore, option B is the most accurate description of the electron cloud model of the atom.

2. Which hormone stimulates the release of calcium from bones and increases blood calcium levels?

• A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
• B. Calcitonin
• C. Growth hormone
• D. Testosterone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the correct answer. PTH stimulates the release of calcium from bones, leading to increased blood calcium levels. It acts on the bones to release calcium into the bloodstream, facilitates the kidneys' reabsorption of calcium, and triggers vitamin D activation to boost calcium absorption from the intestines. Choice B, Calcitonin, is incorrect as it works in opposition to PTH by decreasing blood calcium levels through inhibiting calcium release from bones. Choices C and D, Growth hormone and Testosterone, are not directly involved in calcium homeostasis and do not regulate blood calcium levels through bone calcium release mechanisms.

3. What does the term 'colligative property' refer to in solutions?

• A. Properties that depend on the nature of the solute particles
• B. Properties that depend on the concentration of solute particles
• C. Properties that depend on the temperature of the solution
• D. Properties that depend on the pressure of the solution

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colligative properties are properties of a solution that depend on the concentration of solute particles, regardless of the identity of the solute. These properties include lowering the vapor pressure, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing point, and osmotic pressure. The concentration of solute particles affects these properties, not the nature, temperature, or pressure of the solution. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the definition of colligative properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because colligative properties are not based on the nature, temperature, or pressure of the solute, but rather on the concentration of solute particles in the solution.

4. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing kidney stones?

• A. Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables
• B. Maintaining adequate hydration with water
• C. Having a family history of kidney stones
• D. Regularly engaging in moderate exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a family history of kidney stones is a risk factor for developing kidney stones. Genetic predisposition can increase the likelihood of developing kidney stones due to inherited traits that affect the body's ability to process and excrete certain substances. Consuming a diet rich in fruits and vegetables (option A) and maintaining adequate hydration with water (option B) are actually recommended strategies to help prevent kidney stones by promoting overall kidney health. Regularly engaging in moderate exercise (option D) can also be beneficial for kidney health by promoting circulation and overall well-being. Therefore, options A, B, and D are not risk factors but rather beneficial for kidney health.

5. If a doctor diagnoses a patient with an impaired posterior pituitary gland, which of the following symptoms related to kidney function does the patient display?

• A. Thirst
• B. Tiredness
• C. Weight gain
• D. Concentrated urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When the posterior pituitary gland is impaired, there is decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH plays a crucial role in regulating water reabsorption by the kidneys. A deficiency of ADH leads to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine, resulting in the production of dilute urine. Therefore, 'Concentrated urine' is the correct symptom associated with impaired posterior pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Thirst is more commonly associated with diabetes insipidus, tiredness could be a general symptom but not specifically related to kidney function, and weight gain is not a typical symptom of impaired posterior pituitary gland affecting kidney function.

Similar Questions