Nursing Elites

1. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

• A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
• B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
• C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
• D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

2. What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

• A. Poor cough and gag reflex
• B. The gestational age at birth
• C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
• D. The sex of the infant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

4. What should be included in the therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia?

• A. Multivitamins
• B. Calcium
• C. Ferrous sulfate
• D. Iodine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ferrous sulfate. The therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia should include iron supplementation, specifically with ferrous sulfate. This helps to replenish the body's iron stores. Multivitamins (choice A) may contain iron, but iron supplementation is more direct and effective. Calcium (choice B) and iodine (choice D) are not typically part of the primary treatment for iron deficiency anemia.

5. A community hit by a hurricane has suffered mass destruction and flooding. Several facilities are not functioning, and the area is contaminated with human excretions. The nurse is developing a plan of care for clients diagnosed with cholera after an outbreak. Which intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Administer prophylactic antibiotics as prescribed.
• B. Provide fluid and electrolyte replacement.
• C. Isolate all infectious diarrhea victims.
• D. Administer cholera vaccine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing fluid and electrolyte replacement is the highest priority to prevent dehydration and shock in clients with cholera. Administering prophylactic antibiotics may be necessary but is not the highest priority. Isolating infectious diarrhea victims is important for preventing the spread of infection, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Administering a cholera vaccine is preventive and not the immediate priority in treating clients already diagnosed with cholera.

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