Nursing Elites

1. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

• A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
• B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
• C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
• D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

2. What is the most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing?

• A. Restrain the client to prevent injury
• B. Insert an oral airway
• C. Turn the client to the side
• D. Apply soft restraints to the wrists

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical initial intervention for a client who is actively seizing is to turn the client to the side. This action helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration during a seizure. Restrain the client to prevent injury (Choice A) is incorrect because restraining a client during a seizure can lead to injury. Inserting an oral airway (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause injury and is not necessary during an active seizure. Applying soft restraints to the wrists (Choice D) is also not recommended as it can lead to harm and does not address the immediate airway management needed during a seizure.

3. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?

• A. Increased respiratory rate
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Improved oxygen saturation
• D. Complaints of dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.

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