Nursing Elites

1. Which regimen is most effective for treating H. pylori infection?

• A. Metronidazole, bismuth subsalicylate, amoxicillin for 14 days
• B. Clarithromycin and omeprazole for 14 days
• C. Metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days
• D. Metronidazole, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 7 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regimen C, which consists of metronidazole, lansoprazole, and clarithromycin for 14 days, is recommended by the FDA as an effective treatment for H. pylori infection. This regimen has been shown to have a high eradication rate and is a standard recommendation in clinical practice guidelines for the management of H. pylori-related conditions.

2. A patient with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?

• A. With meals
• B. At bedtime
• C. Before meals
• D. After meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Omeprazole should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production and promote healing of the ulcer. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication can inhibit acid secretion when the stomach is most active in producing acid, thereby maximizing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcer disease.

3. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.

4. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

5. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

• A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
• B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
• C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
• D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

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