Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a sign of altered mental status in a small child?

• A. Fear of the EMT's presence.
• B. Recognition of the parents.
• C. Inattention to the EMT's presence.
• D. Consistent eye contact with the EMT.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inattention to the EMT's presence is a sign of altered mental status in a small child. When a child is not responsive or does not acknowledge the presence of the EMT, it could indicate a change in their mental status. This lack of attention or awareness may signify a neurological issue or other medical condition affecting the child's cognitive function.

2. A 2-year-old client is admitted for an acute asthma episode. The hospital provides family-centered care. In explaining the program to the parents, the nurse would explain that the parents are:

• A. Required to implement all personal hygiene care for their child.
• B. Encouraged to be as involved with the child's care as they are comfortable being.
• C. Requested to administer all oral medications.
• D. Expected to be present at the child's bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Family-centered care involves encouraging parents to actively participate in their child's care based on their comfort level. This approach promotes collaboration between healthcare providers and families, enhancing the quality of care and ensuring the family's involvement in decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because parents are encouraged to participate, not required to implement all personal hygiene care. Choice C is incorrect as it implies a specific action rather than the broader concept of involvement. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on physical presence rather than active participation in care.

3. The healthcare provider is providing postpartum care to a client who had a vaginal delivery. Which finding would require further assessment?

• A. Perineal swelling
• B. Moderate lochia serosa
• C. Headache unrelieved by analgesics
• D. Breast engorgement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A headache unrelieved by analgesics can be a sign of a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and often protein in the urine. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.

4. In which of the following situations would the EMT MOST likely deliver a baby at the scene?

• A. A tornado has struck and blocked the only route to the hospital.
• B. Contractions are 8 to 10 minutes apart and irregular.
• C. The amniotic sac has ruptured, and contractions occur regularly.
• D. The hospital is 15 miles away, and crowning is not present.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The EMT may be required to deliver a baby at the scene when external factors like a tornado have blocked the only route to the hospital, making it impossible to reach the medical facility in time for delivery. In such emergencies, the EMT must be prepared to manage the childbirth process until further medical assistance can be obtained.

5. When is it MOST appropriate to clamp and cut the umbilical cord?

• A. Before the newborn has taken its first breath
• B. After the placenta has completely delivered
• C. As soon as the cord has stopped pulsating
• D. Immediately following delivery of the newborn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal time to clamp and cut the umbilical cord is when it has stopped pulsating. This allows for the transfer of remaining blood from the placenta to the newborn, which can be beneficial for the baby's health and iron stores. Clamping the cord too early can deprive the newborn of this essential blood volume. Waiting for the pulsations to cease ensures that the baby receives the maximum benefits from delayed cord clamping.

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