Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common sign of dehydration in infants?

• A. Frequent urination
• B. Sunken fontanelle
• C. Excessive drooling
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sunken fontanelle is a common sign of dehydration in infants. The fontanelle is the soft spot on an infant's head where the skull bones have not yet fused. When an infant is dehydrated, the fontanelle can appear sunken or indented. It is important for caregivers and healthcare providers to recognize this sign promptly to ensure timely intervention and hydration for the infant.

2. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients may sometimes receive false negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination?

• A. Effectiveness
• B. Efficacy
• C. Specificity
• D. Sensitivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sensitivity is the ability of a diagnostic test to correctly identify individuals with the disease. A test with high sensitivity will rarely give false negative results, as it will detect almost all positive cases. In the context of the given scenario, false negative results indicate that the test is lacking in sensitivity to pick up all cases of pulmonary tuberculosis, leading to some cases being missed.

3. Which of the following practices is part of the Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI)?

• A. Promoting the use of infant formula
• B. Encouraging skin-to-skin contact after birth
• C. Separating mother and baby after delivery
• D. Scheduling feedings at fixed intervals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is encouraging skin-to-skin contact after birth. The Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) aims to promote breastfeeding and bonding by encouraging practices such as immediate skin-to-skin contact between mother and baby, rooming-in, and supporting exclusive breastfeeding. These practices have been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby in terms of bonding, breastfeeding success, and overall health outcomes.

4. At what age is the first dose of the MMR vaccine typically administered to a child?

• A. At birth
• B. 6 months
• C. 12 months
• D. 18 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered to a child at 12 months of age to provide protection against measles, mumps, and rubella. Administering the vaccine at this age ensures that the child's immune system is developed enough to generate a protective response to the vaccine.

5. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?

• A. Pre-pathogenesis
• B. Pathogenesis
• C. Predromal
• D. Terminal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on actions taken to prevent complications and further deterioration among individuals already diagnosed with a disease. It is implemented during the terminal stage of a disease when efforts are made to prevent disability, restore function, and improve quality of life. This stage is crucial for managing the disease's progression and enhancing the patient's well-being.

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