Nursing Elites

1. What describes a cell’s reaction to being placed in a hypertonic solution?

• A. The cell will shrink as water is pulled out of the cell to equalize the concentrations inside and outside of the cell.
• B. The cell will swell as water is pulled into the cell to equalize the concentrations inside and outside of the cell.
• C. The cell will remain the same size since the concentrations inside and outside the cell are equal to begin with.
• D. The pH inside the cell will drop in order to equalize the pH inside and outside the cell.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cell placed in a hypertonic solution has a higher solute concentration outside the cell compared to inside. This creates a concentration gradient that causes water to move out of the cell through osmosis to equalize the concentrations on both sides. As a result, the cell will shrink or undergo plasmolysis, as water is pulled out of the cell. Choice B is incorrect because a hypertonic solution causes water to move out of the cell, leading to shrinkage rather than swelling. Choice C is incorrect as a hypertonic solution results in a concentration gradient that leads to water leaving the cell, causing it to shrink. Choice D is incorrect because pH is not directly affected by being placed in a hypertonic solution; the change in solute concentration primarily impacts water movement.

2. Which radioactive isotope is commonly used in medical imaging techniques such as PET scans?

• A. Uranium-235
• B. Plutonium-239
• C. Potassium-40
• D. Fluorine-18

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluorine-18 is the radioactive isotope commonly used in medical imaging techniques such as PET scans. It is frequently used in the form of fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) to locate areas of heightened metabolic activity in the body, such as in cancer cells. Uranium-235 and Plutonium-239 are not typically employed in medical imaging, and Potassium-40, while a naturally occurring radioactive isotope found in the human body, is not commonly used in medical imaging techniques.

3. What is the role of the pancreas in the digestive system?

• A. To store bile
• B. To secrete digestive enzymes
• C. To digest proteins
• D. To absorb nutrients

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'To secrete digestive enzymes.' The pancreas plays a crucial role in the digestive system by secreting digestive enzymes that aid in breaking down food in the small intestine. These enzymes help in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, facilitating the absorption of nutrients from the digested food. Choice A is incorrect because the pancreas is not responsible for storing bile; the gallbladder stores bile. Choice C is incorrect because the pancreas secretes enzymes for protein digestion but does not digest proteins itself. Choice D is incorrect as the absorption of nutrients primarily occurs in the small intestine, not in the pancreas.

4. When light interacts with a perfectly smooth surface, like a mirror, the dominant interaction is:

• A. Refraction
• B. Diffraction
• C. Total internal reflection
• D. Specular reflection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When light interacts with a perfectly smooth surface like a mirror, the dominant interaction is specular reflection. Specular reflection occurs when light rays are reflected off a smooth surface at the same angle as the incident angle, resulting in a clear and sharp reflection. Refraction, which involves the bending of light as it passes from one medium to another, is not the dominant interaction with a perfectly smooth surface. Diffraction, the bending of light waves around obstacles, is not the dominant interaction with smooth surfaces. Total internal reflection occurs when light is reflected back into a medium due to encountering a boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle, but it is not the dominant interaction on a perfectly smooth surface like a mirror.

5. Which type of mutation involves a change in the number of chromosomes?

• A. Point mutation
• B. Frameshift mutation
• C. Missense mutation
• D. Aneuploidy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A) Point mutation involves a change in a single nucleotide base pair within the DNA sequence. B) Frameshift mutation involves the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, causing a shift in the reading frame of the genetic code. C) Missense mutation involves a single nucleotide change that results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid. D) Aneuploidy involves a change in the number of chromosomes, where an individual may have an extra chromosome (trisomy) or a missing chromosome (monosomy). Aneuploidy can lead to genetic disorders such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21) or Turner syndrome (monosomy X). Changing the number of chromosomes is a characteristic feature of aneuploidy, making it the correct answer. Point mutation, frameshift mutation, and missense mutation do not involve a change in the number of chromosomes and are focused on alterations at the nucleotide level within the DNA sequence.

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