which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.

2. Which intervention is most appropriate when caring for a patient experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is to ensure patient safety by maintaining an open airway to prevent aspiration. Turning the patient to the side helps achieve this goal by allowing any fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration. Restraint can lead to injury, placing a tongue depressor can cause harm or obstruct the airway further, and attempting to stop the seizure by holding the patient's arms is ineffective and can also result in injury. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to turn the patient to the side.

3. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

4. When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.

5. When reinforcing diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalemia, which foods should the PN encourage the client to eat? Select All That Apply

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are applicable. Foods rich in potassium, such as orange juice, oranges, bananas, collard greens, kale, soybeans, lima beans, and spinach, are essential for managing hypokalemia. These options provide a significant source of potassium, which helps in maintaining normal heart and muscle function. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include all the appropriate potassium-rich foods. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions vegetables rich in potassium, missing out on other essential sources like fruits and beans. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks key potassium-rich foods like oranges and bananas.

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