Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Massage inflamed joints with creams and oils
• B. Provide support to flexed joints with pillows and pads
• C. Position the client on their abdomen several times a day
• D. Assist with heat application and range of motion exercises

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.

2. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a history of hepatitis C asks the nurse if she will be able to breastfeed. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. You may breastfeed unless your nipples are cracked or bleeding.
• B. You must use a breast pump to provide breast milk.
• C. You must use a nipple shield when breastfeeding.
• D. You may breastfeed after your baby develops antibodies.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'You may breastfeed unless your nipples are cracked or bleeding.' In the case of hepatitis C, breastfeeding is generally safe unless the mother's nipples are cracked or bleeding, which could increase the risk of transmission to the baby. Choice B is incorrect as using a breast pump is not a mandatory requirement for breastfeeding with hepatitis C. Choice C is incorrect as a nipple shield is not necessary in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because the baby developing antibodies does not impact the decision to breastfeed in the context of hepatitis C.

3. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness
• B. Check for calf tenderness and administer anticoagulants
• C. Check for discoloration and monitor oxygen saturation
• D. Check for numbness and provide thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct way to assess a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to monitor for leg pain, swelling, and redness. These are common clinical manifestations of DVT. Choice B is incorrect because administering anticoagulants should be based on a confirmed diagnosis, not just suspicion. Choice C is incorrect because discoloration and oxygen saturation are not primary indicators of DVT. Choice D is incorrect because numbness is not a typical symptom of DVT, and thrombolytic therapy is not the first-line treatment for suspected DVT.

5. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
• B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
• C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

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