ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Massage inflamed joints with creams and oils
- B. Provide support to flexed joints with pillows and pads
- C. Position the client on their abdomen several times a day
- D. Assist with heat application and range of motion exercises
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 3 liters per day
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day
- C. Drink 4 liters of water per day
- D. Restrict water intake to 1 liter per day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Limit fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day.' For clients with heart failure, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake to 1-2 liters per day helps maintain fluid balance and prevents exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because consuming 3 liters, 4 liters, or limiting water intake to 1 liter per day, respectively, can lead to fluid overload in clients with heart failure.
3. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?
- A. Apply counter-pressure for back pain
- B. Use deep breathing exercises
- C. Visualize the baby's head
- D. Use massage therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.
5. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?
- A. When the client is hypotensive
- B. When the client is irritable
- C. When the client is flushed
- D. When the client is bradycardic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.
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