which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. Which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.

3. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

4. What are the early signs of heart failure in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. Early signs of heart failure typically manifest as shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation in the lungs and weight gain due to fluid retention in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and chest pain are symptoms commonly associated with heart conditions but are not specific early signs of heart failure. Nausea and vomiting are not typically early signs of heart failure. Cough can be a symptom of heart failure, but it is usually associated with other symptoms like shortness of breath rather than being an isolated early sign. Elevated blood pressure is not an early sign of heart failure; in fact, heart failure is more commonly associated with low blood pressure.

5. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

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