ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. Which of the following is the best intervention for managing dehydration?
- A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
- B. Monitor fluid and electrolyte levels
- C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best intervention for managing dehydration is to monitor fluid and electrolyte levels. This approach allows healthcare providers to assess the severity of dehydration, determine appropriate fluid replacement therapy, and prevent complications. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice C) may be appropriate for mild dehydration but can be inadequate for moderate to severe cases. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is crucial for severe dehydration or cases where oral rehydration is ineffective, but monitoring fluid and electrolyte levels should precede this intervention.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
- B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
- C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
- D. HbA1c level less than 7%.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.
3. What are the primary causes of respiratory acidosis?
- A. Hypoventilation and lung disease
- B. Hyperventilation and pneumonia
- C. Increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea
- D. Dehydration and hypoxia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoventilation and lung disease. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of CO2 in the body due to inadequate ventilation. Hypoventilation, which reduces the elimination of CO2, and lung diseases that impair gas exchange are the primary causes. Choice B is incorrect because hyperventilation, not hypoventilation, leads to respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice C is incorrect because increased oxygen saturation and tachypnea do not directly cause respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration and hypoxia do not typically lead to respiratory acidosis.
4. What is the role of the nurse in the care of a patient with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Clean the wound and apply a protective dressing
- B. Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently
- C. Apply pressure to the ulcer and monitor for signs of healing
- D. Provide pain relief and administer antibiotics as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the wound and reposition the patient frequently. When caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the wound regularly to monitor its progress and prevent complications. Additionally, repositioning the patient frequently helps to relieve pressure on the affected area, prevent further damage, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because while cleaning the wound is important, applying a protective dressing is not the primary role of the nurse in managing a pressure ulcer. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the ulcer is harmful, and monitoring for signs of healing should not involve applying pressure. Choice D is incorrect as providing pain relief and administering antibiotics may be necessary but are not the primary interventions for managing a pressure ulcer.
5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
- B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
- C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
- D. Place the patient in a side-lying position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.
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