Nursing Elites

1. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

2. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?

• A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
• B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
• C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
• D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.

3. When assessing a client with acute asthma, the nurse is most likely to obtain which finding?

• A. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers
• B. Fever and a high-pitched inspiratory stridor
• C. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis
• D. Cough and musical breath sounds on expiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with acute asthma, a cough and wheezing or musical breath sounds on expiration are typical findings. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers (choice A) are not common in acute asthma but could be seen in chronic respiratory conditions. Fever and high-pitched inspiratory stridor (choice B) are more indicative of croup or epiglottitis. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis (choice C) are not typical findings in acute asthma.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

• A. Cramping muscular pain
• B. Worming movements of the tongue
• C. Decreased tendon reflexes
• D. Dry oral mucous membranes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

5. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

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