Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority intervention for a patient admitted for an overdose of sedatives and diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder?

• A. Conducting a suicide assessment
• B. Arranging for placement in a group home
• C. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• D. Establishing trust and rapport

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a suicide assessment is the priority intervention for a patient admitted for an overdose of sedatives and diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder. In this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess the risk of harm to the patient's life. It is crucial to determine if the overdose was intentional and if the patient has suicidal ideation or intent. Arranging for placement in a group home (choice B) may be necessary at a later stage depending on the patient's needs, but it is not the priority in this urgent situation. Providing a low-stimulation environment (choice C) and establishing trust and rapport (choice D) are important aspects of care but addressing the immediate risk of suicide takes precedence in this case.

2. A client with anxiety disorder is scheduled to begin classical psychoanalysis. Which client statement indicates an understanding of this form of therapy?

• A. “Even if my anxiety improves, I will need to continue this therapy for 6 weeks”
• B. “The therapist will focus on my past relationships during our sessions”
• C. “Psychoanalysis will help me reduce my anxiety by changing my behaviors”
• D. “This therapy will address my conscious feelings about stressful experiences”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In classical psychoanalysis, the therapist delves into the client's past relationships, childhood experiences, and unconscious thoughts to uncover underlying issues contributing to the client's current symptoms. Understanding that the therapist will focus on past relationships aligns with the core principles of classical psychoanalysis. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of classical psychoanalysis is typically longer than 6 weeks. Choice C is incorrect as changing behaviors is more aligned with behavioral therapy than classical psychoanalysis. Choice D is incorrect as classical psychoanalysis primarily focuses on unconscious thoughts rather than conscious feelings about stressful experiences.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

• A. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
• B. Provide a quiet and non-stimulating environment.
• C. Administer prescribed medication immediately.
• D. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a panic attack, it is crucial to provide a quiet and non-stimulating environment to help the patient feel safe and reduce sensory overload. This approach can help the patient focus on calming down and regaining control. Encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings may exacerbate the panic attack by increasing stress and arousal levels. Administering medication should be done following healthcare provider's orders, as it may not be appropriate to give medication immediately without proper assessment. Teaching relaxation techniques might not be effective during the acute phase of a panic attack when the individual is overwhelmed by intense anxiety.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take my medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I can stop taking my medication once I feel better.
• D. I might experience some improvement in mood within a few weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. It is crucial for patients to understand that they should not stop taking their medication once they feel better. Discontinuing antidepressants abruptly can lead to a relapse of depressive symptoms. Patients should continue taking their medication as prescribed by their healthcare provider, even if they start feeling better, to ensure the best outcomes in managing major depressive disorder. Choices A, B, and D are all accurate statements. Taking medication with food can help reduce stomach upset, avoiding alcohol is essential while on sertraline to prevent interactions, and experiencing some improvement in mood within a few weeks is a common expectation when starting an antidepressant like sertraline.

5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar disorder, a lower dosage of lithium is often prescribed to prevent toxicity and maintain stability while minimizing side effects. Lower doses are typically used once the patient has achieved mood stabilization to reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with long-term lithium use.

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