Nursing Elites

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed fluvoxamine. What is a common side effect of this medication?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluvoxamine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used in the treatment of OCD. Patients should be advised to monitor and report any gastrointestinal disturbances, including nausea, to their healthcare provider.

2. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a ‘moody child’ with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert’s early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A person like Gilbert, with an early and slow onset of schizophrenia along with severe symptoms such as loss of daily functioning and obsessions, is likely to have a less positive outcome. Early and severe symptoms are often associated with a more chronic and debilitating course of schizophrenia, which can make treatment and recovery more challenging. Therefore, Gilbert's prognosis is considered to have a less positive outcome. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Gilbert's condition, with its early onset and severe symptoms impacting daily life, suggests a more challenging prognosis that is less likely to be favorable with just medication or psychosocial interventions. Being in the relapse stage is not the primary concern here; the focus is on the overall outcome which is expected to be less positive given the early and severe nature of Gilbert's symptoms.

3. When a patient is diagnosed with major depressive disorder, which nursing diagnosis should be the priority?

• A. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
• B. Risk for suicide
• C. Disturbed sleep pattern
• D. Ineffective coping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder is 'Risk for suicide.' This is the priority as it addresses the immediate risk of self-harm in individuals suffering from major depressive disorder. Monitoring and intervening to prevent self-harm take precedence over other nursing diagnoses in this scenario.

4. When communicating with a client admitted for treatment of a substance use disorder, which of the following communication techniques should be identified as a barrier to therapeutic communication?

• A. Offering advice
• B. Reflecting
• C. Listening attentively
• D. Giving information

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering advice is a barrier to therapeutic communication because it can hinder the client's ability to explore their own solutions and feelings. It may come across as judgmental or dismissive of the client's experience, leading to a breakdown in trust and hindering the therapeutic relationship. Reflecting (choice B) is a helpful technique that involves paraphrasing or restating the client's words to show understanding. Listening attentively (choice C) is crucial for building rapport and demonstrating empathy. Giving information (choice D) is also important but should be done in a way that supports the client's understanding and autonomy, rather than directing their choices.

5. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:

• A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
• D. Lurasidone (Latuda)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.

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