ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
- B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative and is unable to ambulate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client's venous return?
- A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position
- C. Apply a sequential compression device
- D. Massage the client's legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apply a sequential compression device. Applying a sequential compression device promotes venous return by assisting with blood circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of blood clots. Encouraging deep breathing exercises can help with lung expansion but does not directly promote venous return. Maintaining the client in a supine position may not be ideal for promoting venous return if the client is unable to move. Massaging the client's legs may be contraindicated postoperatively due to the risk of dislodging a clot or causing trauma to the surgical site.
3. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
4. When should a healthcare provider suction a client's tracheostomy?
- A. When the client is hypotensive
- B. When the client is irritable
- C. When the client is flushed
- D. When the client is bradycardic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is required to clear secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may indicate a need for fluid resuscitation or other interventions, flushing could be due to various reasons like fever, and bradycardia may require evaluation for cardiac causes.
5. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has full-thickness burns of the thorax and upper torso. After securing the client's airway, which of the following is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Providing pain management.
- B. Offering emotional support.
- C. Preventing infection.
- D. Initiating IV fluids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After securing the airway, initiating IV fluids is the priority to prevent hypovolemic shock in clients with severe burns. IV fluids help maintain circulating volume and prevent a drop in blood pressure due to fluid loss. Providing pain management, offering emotional support, and preventing infection are important aspects of care but are secondary to ensuring adequate fluid resuscitation in clients with severe burns.
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