Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

2. What is the most important intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Monitor airway patency
• C. Provide bronchodilators
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient experiencing respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy helps to improve oxygen levels in the blood, supporting vital organ functions. While monitoring airway patency is important, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring the patient receives an adequate oxygen supply. Providing bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but the immediate priority in distress is to address oxygenation. Calling for assistance is essential, but the immediate intervention to support the patient's respiratory function is administering oxygen.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food selection with a client who has a moderate burn injury. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as being high in vitamin C?

• A. Tomatoes
• B. Carrots
• C. Avocados
• D. Apricots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tomatoes are high in vitamin C, which is crucial for wound healing, making them an excellent recommendation for a client with a burn injury. Carrots, avocados, and apricots are not as rich in vitamin C compared to tomatoes, and therefore, they are not the best choice for promoting healing in this scenario.

5. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Muscle stiffness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperreflexia
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels, which can lead to muscle weakness due to impaired muscle function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other medical conditions and not typically expected in hypokalemia. Muscle stiffness is more commonly associated with conditions like tetany or muscle cramps, bradycardia is more commonly associated with issues like heart block or hypothyroidism, and hyperreflexia is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injuries.

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