ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?
- A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
- B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.
2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Tingling of the extremities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
5. Which nursing action is best when managing a client with severe anxiety?
- A. Maintain a calm manner
- B. Help the client identify thoughts prior to the anxiety
- C. Administer anti-anxiety medication
- D. Initiate seclusion if anxiety escalates
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a calm manner. When managing a client with severe anxiety, the nurse's calm presence can help the client feel more secure and reduce their anxiety levels. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment. Helping the client identify thoughts prior to anxiety (choice B) may be beneficial in cognitive-behavioral interventions but may not be the initial best action for severe anxiety. Administering anti-anxiety medication (choice C) should be done by a healthcare provider's order and is not the first-line intervention for managing severe anxiety. Initiating seclusion (choice D) should only be considered as a last resort if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others, as it can further escalate anxiety and should not be the initial action.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access