Nursing Elites

1. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

2. A client is postoperative following a rhinoplasty, and a nurse is contributing to the plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?

• A. Administer humidified oxygen
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Instruct the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver
• D. Apply heat packs to the nose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid the Valsalva maneuver is crucial after rhinoplasty to reduce strain and the risk of bleeding. Administering humidified oxygen may not be directly related to postoperative care for rhinoplasty. Restricting fluids is not typically necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. Applying heat packs to the nose is contraindicated after rhinoplasty as it can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided.

3. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the immediate action the nurse should take is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as infection, thrombosis, or sepsis. Removing the IV line helps prevent further irritation and infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may provide some relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed to address phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice D) may be prescribed by the provider but is not the first step in managing phlebitis.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the first action?

• A. Administer the blood through an IV push
• B. Verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion
• C. Warm the blood to body temperature before administration
• D. Ensure the client eats before starting the transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the client's blood type before starting the transfusion. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions and complications. Option A is incorrect because blood transfusions should not be administered through an IV push due to the risk of rapid infusion and adverse reactions. Option C is incorrect because blood should be transfused at room temperature, not body temperature. Option D is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion.

5. A nurse has agreed to serve as an interpreter for an older adult client who is assigned to another nurse. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of this role?

• A. I will let the client know that I am available as the interpreter.
• B. I will receive a small fee for interpreting for this client.
• C. I am glad I am available today, but when I am not, you can use a family member.
• D. I will let the client know that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because the nurse should inform the client of their availability to interpret, ensuring that communication is clear and culturally appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as interpreters in healthcare settings usually do not receive fees for providing interpretation services. Choice C is incorrect because suggesting the use of a family member as an interpreter may not ensure accurate communication, as they may not be trained or impartial. Choice D is incorrect because stating that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift does not address the current situation where the nurse has agreed to interpret for the client.

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