Nursing Elites

1. What is the acceleration of an object moving at a constant speed of 20 m/s if it comes to a complete stop within 5 seconds?

• A. 0 m/s² (no acceleration)
• B. 4 m/s²
• C. -4 m/s²
• D. Insufficient information

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To find the acceleration, we use the formula: acceleration = (final velocity - initial velocity) / time. Given that the final velocity is 0 m/s (as the object stops), the initial velocity is 20 m/s, and the time taken is 5 seconds. Substituting these values into the formula, we get acceleration = (0 m/s - 20 m/s) / 5 s = -20 m/s / 5 s = -4 m/s². Therefore, the acceleration is -4 m/s², indicating that the object decelerated at a rate of 4 m/s² to come to a complete stop. Choice A is incorrect because the object does experience acceleration as it changes its speed from 20 m/s to 0 m/s. Choice B is incorrect as it represents acceleration in the wrong direction, considering the object is decelerating. Choice D is incorrect as there is sufficient information provided to calculate the acceleration based on the given data.

2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

• A. Removing substances from the blood.
• B. Releasing hormones.
• C. Combating disease.
• D. Maintaining tissue fluid balance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Releasing hormones is not a function of the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system plays crucial roles in removing substances from the blood, combating disease through the production of immune cells, and maintaining tissue fluid balance by circulating lymph. Releasing hormones is primarily the function of endocrine glands, not the lymphatic system.

3. Which human body system is correctly matched with its function?

• A. Respiratory system; exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs.
• B. Circulatory system; transports oxygen to cells and removes carbon dioxide.
• C. Lymphatic system; produces antibodies that destroy virally affected or foreign cells.
• D. Endocrine system; regulates hormones controlling bodily functions and metabolism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The circulatory system is responsible for the transportation of oxygen from the lungs to all the body's cells and tissues, as well as removing carbon dioxide from the cells and transporting it back to the lungs to be exhaled. This process is crucial for cellular respiration and the exchange of gases necessary for bodily functions. Choice B accurately matches the role of the circulatory system by describing its function of transporting oxygen to cells and removing carbon dioxide, which is essential for maintaining proper cellular activities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately match the body system with its function. The respiratory system primarily involves the exchange of gases in the lungs, not transportation to cells; the lymphatic system deals with immunity through the production of antibodies, not gas exchange; and the endocrine system's main function is hormone regulation, not the transport of gases.

4. Which type of joint allows for the most movement?

• A. Ball-and-socket joint (shoulder)
• B. Hinge joint (elbow)
• C. Fibrocartilaginous joint (wrists)
• D. Suture joint (skull)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ball-and-socket joint (shoulder). Ball-and-socket joints, exemplified by the shoulder joint, provide the widest range of movement among joint types. These joints facilitate flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation, allowing for versatile mobility. In a ball-and-socket joint, the rounded end of one bone fits into the socket of another bone, enabling extensive motion capabilities. Choice B, Hinge joint (elbow), allows movement in one plane, limiting its range compared to ball-and-socket joints. Choice C, Fibrocartilaginous joint (wrists), like the intervertebral discs, is meant for stability rather than extensive movement. Choice D, Suture joint (skull), found in the skull bones, is immovable and provides structural support rather than movement.

5. What is a monohybrid cross, and what is the ratio of dominant to recessive gene manifestation?

• A. A cross involving two traits, 9:3:3:1
• B. A cross involving one trait, 3:1
• C. A cross involving two traits, 1:2:1
• D. A cross involving one trait, 1:1

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A monohybrid cross is a genetic cross involving one trait. The ratio of dominant to recessive gene manifestation in the offspring is typically 3:1 when both parents are heterozygous. This ratio is the genotypic ratio, not just the phenotype ratio, where the dominant allele is present in 3 out of 4 offspring, and the recessive allele is present in 1 out of 4 offspring. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a dihybrid cross ratio. Choice C is incorrect as it represents the genotypic ratio for a monohybrid cross involving incomplete dominance. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical ratio for a monohybrid cross.

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