Nursing Elites

1. What is an important nursing responsibility when a dysrhythmia is suspected?

• A. order an immediate electrocardiogram
• B. count the radial pulse every 1 minute for five times
• C. count the apical pulse for 1 full minute, and compare the rate with the radial pulse rate
• D. have someone else take the radial pulse simultaneously with the apical pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a dysrhythmia is suspected, an important nursing responsibility is to count the apical pulse for 1 full minute and then compare this rate with the radial pulse rate. This method helps in identifying dysrhythmias as it allows for a direct comparison of the heart's rhythm at two different pulse points. Ordering an immediate electrocardiogram (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Counting the radial pulse multiple times (Choice B) is not as accurate as comparing rates directly. Having someone else take the radial pulse simultaneously (Choice D) may introduce errors and inconsistencies in the measurement.

2. A child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a severe asthma attack. What type of acid-base imbalance should the nurse expect the child to develop?

• A. metabolic alkalosis due to insufficient production of acid metabolites
• B. respiratory alkalosis due to depressed respirations and retention of carbon dioxide
• C. respiratory acidosis due to impaired respirations and increased formation of carbonic acid
• D. metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys' inability to compensate for decreased carbonic acid formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a severe asthma attack, the child is likely to develop respiratory acidosis. This occurs due to impaired respirations, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide and the formation of carbonic acid. Choice A is incorrect as metabolic alkalosis is not expected in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as respiratory alkalosis does not align with the scenario of impaired respirations in severe asthma attacks. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes metabolic acidosis, which is not typically associated with severe asthma attacks.

3. What is the first action a healthcare provider should take before administering a tube feeding to an infant?

• A. Irrigate the tube with water.
• B. Offer a pacifier to the infant.
• C. Slowly instill 10 mL of formula.
• D. Place the infant in the Trendelenburg position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to offer a pacifier to the infant before administering tube feeding. Offering a pacifier helps stimulate the sucking reflex, preparing the infant for feeding and promoting digestion and comfort. Irrigating the tube with water (Choice A) is not typically the first action before tube feeding and may not be necessary. Slowly instilling formula (Choice C) should only be done after the infant is prepared for feeding. Placing the infant in the Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not necessary and may not be recommended for tube feeding.

4. After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), what should the nurse teach a parent to do immediately after a feeding to limit vomiting?

• A. Rock the infant.
• B. Place the infant in an infant seat.
• C. Place the infant flat on the right side.
• D. Keep the infant awake with sensory stimulation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), placing the infant in an infant seat is the correct action to take immediately after feeding to limit vomiting. This position helps keep the head elevated, reducing the risk of vomiting. Rocking the infant (Choice A) may agitate the stomach and increase the likelihood of vomiting. Placing the infant flat on the right side (Choice C) is not recommended as it does not encourage proper digestion and may increase the risk of vomiting. Keeping the infant awake with sensory stimulation (Choice D) does not address the positioning concern related to vomiting in this specific post-operative scenario.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected rheumatic fever. What clinical manifestation is the provider likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Peeling skin on the hands and feet
• C. High fever
• D. Severe joint pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe joint pain is a classic symptom of rheumatic fever, resulting from inflammation of the joints. Rheumatic fever primarily affects the joints, heart, skin, and the central nervous system. Jaundice (Choice A) is not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Peeling skin on the hands and feet (Choice B) is more characteristic of conditions like Kawasaki disease. While high fever (Choice C) can be present in rheumatic fever, it is not as specific or characteristic as severe joint pain.

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