Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?

• A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
• B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
• C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.

2. A client who had a hip replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent hip dislocation?

• A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.
• B. Do not sleep on the side of the hip that was operated on.
• C. Sit in high chairs and keep your knees higher than your hips.
• D. Do not bend forward at the waist to pick up objects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid crossing your legs at the knees or ankles.' Crossing legs at the knees or ankles can cause excessive stress on the new hip joint, leading to a risk of dislocation. Choice B is incorrect because sleeping on the side of the operated hip can also increase the risk of dislocation. Choice C is incorrect as sitting in low chairs with knees higher than hips is a recommended position to prevent hip dislocation. Choice D is incorrect because bending forward at the waist to pick up objects can strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation.

3. Which condition is characterized by a progressive loss of muscle strength due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors?

• A. Myasthenia gravis
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
• D. Guillain-Barré syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness caused by autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This results in impaired communication between nerves and muscles. Choice B, Multiple sclerosis, is a condition where the immune system attacks the protective myelin sheath covering the nerves in the central nervous system, leading to communication issues between the brain and the rest of the body. Choice C, Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, not involving acetylcholine receptors. Choice D, Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an acute condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerves, causing muscle weakness and paralysis, but it does not target acetylcholine receptors.

4. A male client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia is withdrawn, isolates himself in the day room, and answers questions with one or two-word responses. This morning, the practical nurse observes that he is diaphoretic and is pacing in the hall. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Persuade the client to lie down
• B. Provide a drink high in electrolytes
• C. Observe the client during the shift
• D. Measure appropriate vital signs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring vital signs is crucial in this situation as it helps to determine if the client is experiencing a physical health issue or if the symptoms are related to a mental health crisis, such as anxiety or agitation. The presence of diaphoresis and pacing may indicate physiological changes requiring immediate attention. Providing a drink high in electrolytes or persuading the client to lie down may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Simply observing the client during the shift without taking necessary actions to assess his physiological status may delay appropriate intervention.

5. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
• C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.

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