HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
- A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
- B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
- C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
- D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.
2. Which of the following are key parameters that produce blood pressure? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are indeed key parameters that directly influence blood pressure. Heart rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, affecting how much blood is pumped. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one contraction. Peripheral resistance is the resistance of the arteries to blood flow, impacting the pressure needed to push blood through. Neuroendocrine hormones, while they can indirectly influence blood pressure regulation by affecting factors like blood volume and vascular tone, are not direct final parameters that produce blood pressure.
3. When taking blood pressure at the brachial artery, the nurse should place the client's arm in which position?
- A. Slightly above the level of the heart
- B. At the level of the heart
- C. At a level of comfort for the client
- D. Below the level of the heart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When taking blood pressure at the brachial artery, it is crucial to place the client's arm at the level of the heart to ensure accurate measurement. Placing the arm above or below the heart level can lead to incorrect readings. Option A, placing the arm slightly above the heart level, would result in falsely lower blood pressure readings as gravity would assist in a lower value. Option C, placing the arm at a level of comfort for the client, may not align with the standardized technique required for accurate blood pressure assessment. Option D, placing the arm below the level of the heart, would likely yield falsely higher blood pressure readings due to increased hydrostatic pressure pushing the blood against gravity.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old infant. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal muscle
- C. Dorsogluteal muscle
- D. Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants due to its size and safety. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults and older children. The ventrogluteal muscle is more commonly used in toddlers and older children. The dorsogluteal muscle is not recommended for intramuscular injections in any age group due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, which poses a risk of injury or sciatic nerve damage.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.
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