Nursing Elites

1. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?

• A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
• B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
• C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
• D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods
• C. Avoid all foods containing vitamin K
• D. Consume a high-protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is important for patients taking warfarin as it helps keep the effects of the medication stable. Choice A is incorrect because while green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, they should not be avoided completely but rather consumed consistently. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all foods containing vitamin K can lead to fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as a high-protein diet is not specifically recommended for patients taking warfarin.

3. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage fluid intake
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently
• D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is the priority nursing action for a client admitted with hyperglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and prevent further complications associated with hyperglycemia. Encouraging fluid intake is important but not the priority as insulin administration takes precedence to address the immediate hyperglycemic state. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is essential but comes after administering insulin to ensure the treatment's effectiveness. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is incorrect as the client is admitted with hyperglycemia, which requires raising blood glucose levels, not lowering them further.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

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