Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a child suffering from depression ask the nurse what causes depression in children. Which answer is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. The causes of major depression are unknown.
• B. Major affective disorders in parents increase depression in children.
• C. Boys are more likely than girls to be depressed.
• D. The prevalence rate is higher in prepubescent children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because while the exact causes of depression in children are not fully understood, research indicates that children are more likely to experience depression if their parents have a major affective disorder. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests that the causes of major depression are entirely unknown, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no conclusive evidence that boys are more likely than girls to be depressed. Choice D is incorrect as the prevalence rate of depression is not necessarily higher in prepubescent children specifically.

2. What should be included in the therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia?

• A. Multivitamins
• B. Calcium
• C. Ferrous sulfate
• D. Iodine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ferrous sulfate. The therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia should include iron supplementation, specifically with ferrous sulfate. This helps to replenish the body's iron stores. Multivitamins (choice A) may contain iron, but iron supplementation is more direct and effective. Calcium (choice B) and iodine (choice D) are not typically part of the primary treatment for iron deficiency anemia.

3. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

4. Which nursing intervention promotes achievement of the goal 'optimal mobility' for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago?

• A. Encourage the client to use an abductor pillow when ambulating.
• B. Teach the client to perform leg exercises in bed.
• C. Assist the client to sit at the edge of the bed.
• D. Assist the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs is the correct intervention to promote optimal mobility for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago. Using an abductor pillow helps maintain hip alignment and prevents dislocation, which are crucial considerations in the early postoperative period. Encouraging the client to use an abductor pillow when turning is more beneficial compared to the other options: teaching leg exercises in bed, encouraging the use of a walker when ambulating, or assisting the client to sit at the edge of the bed, as these interventions may not directly address the specific needs of a client after a total hip replacement.

5. An overweight, young adult male who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for a hernia repair. He tells the nurse that he is feeling very weak and jittery. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Check his fingerstick glucose
• B. Assess his skin temperature and moisture
• C. Measure his pulse and BP
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is a young adult male with type 2 diabetes mellitus admitted for a hernia repair who is experiencing weakness and jitteriness. Checking his fingerstick glucose is crucial to assess his blood sugar levels, which can directly impact his symptoms. Assessing his skin temperature and moisture is important to evaluate his peripheral circulation and hydration status. Measuring his pulse and blood pressure helps in gauging his cardiovascular status. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are appropriate for the nurse to implement in this situation to identify the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all these actions are necessary for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address different aspects of the patient's condition, and a holistic approach is needed to provide optimal care in this situation.

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