the nurse is caring for an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta and is providing instruction on how to reduce the risk of injury which response from th
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Pediatric HESI Test Bank

1. The caregiver is caring for an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta and is providing instruction on how to reduce the risk of injury. Which response from the caregiver indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lifting the baby by supporting the head and neck can cause fractures in infants with osteogenesis imperfecta. Caregivers should avoid lifting infants in this manner due to the risk of injury. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate correct understanding of how to prevent injuries in infants with osteogenesis imperfecta by avoiding excessive force on the arms or legs, preventing awkward positions, and lifting the legs in a safer manner to change diapers.

2. A healthcare professional is teaching parents about why most children should be immunized against varicella (chickenpox) and why some receiving specific medications should not. Which medication should be included in the discussion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Steroids. Children receiving steroids should not receive the varicella vaccine as it can increase the risk of severe infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of steroids. Insulin (Choice A), antibiotics (Choice C), and anticonvulsants (Choice D) do not interact with the varicella vaccine in the same way as steroids, and therefore, they are not contraindicated.

3. After a discussion with the healthcare provider, the parents of an infant with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ask the nurse to explain once again what PDA is. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is a normal connection between these two vessels, allowing blood to bypass the lungs. However, it should close shortly after birth. When it remains open (patent), it leads to PDA. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe PDA. Choice A describes an enlarged aorta, choice B describes a ventricular septal defect, and choice C describes pulmonary stenosis, which are different cardiac conditions.

4. Why does a cleft lip predispose an infant to infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Mouth breathing due to a cleft lip can dry the mucous membranes, making them more susceptible to infection. Choice A is incorrect because waste products do not accumulate along the defect to predispose the infant to infection. Choice B is incorrect as there is no evidence of inadequate circulation being a primary factor in infection predisposition in cleft lip cases. Choice C is incorrect because although ineffective feeding may lead to other issues, it is not the main reason for infection predisposition in infants with a cleft lip.

5. A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. You should suspect

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child presenting with sudden respiratory distress without fever or recent illness, the most likely cause is a foreign body airway obstruction. Foreign body airway obstruction can lead to a sudden onset of respiratory distress as it blocks the air passage. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and stridor, often preceded by a viral illness. Epiglottitis is characterized by high fever, drooling, and a muffled voice. Lower respiratory infections usually present with symptoms such as cough, fever, and chest congestion. Therefore, in this case, the absence of recent illness or fever makes foreign body airway obstruction the most likely cause of the respiratory distress.

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