Nursing Elites

1. The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?

• A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
• B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
• D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include on the care plan for a patient with a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL is to encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. This is essential to decrease the risk for renal calculi associated with hypercalcemia. While bed rest is not necessary, ambulation is encouraged to help decrease the loss of calcium from the bone. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs is more relevant when hypocalcemia is suspected. Auscultating lung sounds every shift is a routine assessment, not required every 4 hours unless there is a specific respiratory concern.

2. After performing a paracentesis on a client with ascites, 3 liters of fluid are removed. Which assessment parameter is most critical for the nurse to monitor following the procedure?

• A. Pedal pulses.
• B. Breath sounds.
• C. Gag reflex.
• D. Vital signs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following a paracentesis where a significant amount of fluid is removed, it is crucial to monitor the client's vital signs. This helps in detecting any signs of hypovolemia, such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, which could indicate complications post-procedure. Monitoring the vital signs allows for prompt intervention if there are any deviations from the baseline values.

3. What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. One of the potential side effects of spironolactone therapy is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, making it crucial for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia (low potassium levels), hyponatremia (low sodium levels), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels) are not typically associated with spironolactone use in patients with chronic heart failure.

4. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding. Which laboratory test is most important to monitor?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Electrolytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) is crucial as it assesses the blood's ability to clot. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired liver function, affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, hence increasing the risk of bleeding. Maintaining a close watch on PT levels helps in timely intervention to prevent excessive bleeding episodes. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly related to the clotting function; serum creatinine (Choice B) and electrolytes (Choice D) are important, but in cirrhosis, monitoring PT takes precedence due to the increased bleeding risk.

5. A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

• A. Increase urine output
• B. Reduce blood sugar levels
• C. Decrease urine output
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Desmopressin is prescribed to decrease urine output in patients with diabetes insipidus. It works by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, helping to control fluid balance in the body.

Similar Questions