the nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis which intervention should be included in the plan of care
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. Intravenous fluids are crucial to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance in clients with acute pancreatitis. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended initially for clients with acute pancreatitis, as they may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing severe symptoms and requires intravenous fluids. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with acute pancreatitis.

2. What is the primary function of neutrophils?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.

3. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

4. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing by reducing respiratory effort. Administering a high-flow oxygen mask (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Providing a high-carbohydrate diet (Choice C) is not directly related to managing acute shortness of breath in COPD. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice D) is helpful for airway clearance but is not the priority intervention when the client is in distress with acute shortness of breath.

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