Nursing Elites

1. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy, and the nurse is providing care. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarseness and a sore throat.
• B. Difficulty swallowing.
• C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
• D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland removal. Immediate intervention is required to prevent severe hypocalcemia manifestations like tetany or seizures. Hoarseness and a sore throat are common after a thyroidectomy due to surgical trauma and irritation to the vocal cords, not requiring immediate intervention. Difficulty swallowing can be expected due to postoperative swelling or edema, but it should be monitored closely. A temperature of 100.2°F is a mild fever and may be a normal postoperative response, not necessitating immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

3. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?

• A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
• B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
• C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
• D. Mini-Mental State Examination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.

4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, what laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Hemoglobin level
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease who often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Monitoring the hemoglobin level is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy as an increase in hemoglobin indicates improved red blood cell production and better management of anemia in these patients. Serum creatinine, white blood cell count, and serum potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in CKD patients but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for managing anemia.

5. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Celiac disease
• C. Lactose intolerance
• D. Crohn's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea improving with fasting, and a history of iron deficiency anemia are characteristic of celiac disease. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption, leading to damage in the small intestine. The improvement with fasting may be due to the temporary avoidance of gluten-containing foods. Irritable bowel syndrome, lactose intolerance, and Crohn's disease do not typically present with improvement of symptoms with fasting or have a clear association with iron deficiency anemia.

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