Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse focuses on maintaining his cardiopulmonary function. Which intervention would the nurse implement to best promote maximum chest expansion?

• A. Deep-breathing exercises
• B. Upright positioning
• C. Coughing
• D. Chest percussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Upright positioning is the optimal intervention to promote maximum chest expansion in a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. By placing the child in an upright position, gravity can assist in expanding the chest cavity, facilitating better lung expansion and improving breathing efficiency. Deep-breathing exercises may be beneficial but are not as effective in maximizing chest expansion as upright positioning. Coughing and chest percussion focus more on airway clearance and are not directly aimed at promoting chest expansion.

2. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• B. Potassium hydroxide prep
• C. Wound culture
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.

3. The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?

• A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
• B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
• D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.

4. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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