the nurse assigns a uap to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis which instruction should
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

2. Before administering a scheduled dose of insulin to a 10-year-old child who is learning diabetic self-care, which information is most important for the PN to ask the child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Did the child perform a finger stick?' Before administering insulin, it is crucial to check the child's blood glucose level to prevent hypoglycemia. Performing a finger stick blood glucose test provides essential information on the current blood sugar level. Choice A ('How much exercise did the child have today?') is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels directly. Choice C ('When did the child last urinate?') is not directly related to the immediate need for insulin administration. Choice D ('Has the child eaten recently?') is important but not as crucial as knowing the current blood glucose level.

3. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

4. The UAP reports to the PN that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the PN to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the PN to take when a client refuses to bathe is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusing a bath is crucial as it helps to address any underlying issues, such as fear, discomfort, or physical limitations. By communicating directly with the client, the PN can provide appropriate care tailored to the client's needs. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the issue.

5. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.

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