HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist the client with a hot bath
- B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
- C. Face the client directly when speaking
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
2. A Native American client is admitted with a diagnosis of psychosis not otherwise specified. The client's family seems to regard the client's hallucinations as normal. What assessment can be made?
- A. The client's family regards the hallucinations from a cultural context
- B. The client will benefit from a talking circle
- C. The client will need a medicine man
- D. The client will need a single room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the family may interpret the client's hallucinations through their cultural lens, potentially viewing them as normal or spiritually significant. Understanding and acknowledging the cultural context is essential for providing culturally sensitive care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while talking circles and seeking guidance from a medicine man may be culturally relevant interventions in some contexts, the priority in this situation is to recognize and respect the family's perspective on the client's hallucinations.
3. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- B. To improve circulation in the legs.
- C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
- D. To alleviate post-operative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.
4. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?
- A. Parathyroid hormone
- B. Insulin
- C. Cortisol
- D. Thyroxine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.
5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
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