HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist the client with a hot bath
- B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
- C. Face the client directly when speaking
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
2. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?
- A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
- B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
- C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
- D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.
3. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?
- A. Record usual eating patterns
- B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
- C. Document abdominal girth
- D. Elevate both legs on pillows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.
4. In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Count the client's radial pulse
- B. Apply a blood pressure cuff
- C. Instruct the client to lie supine
- D. Assist the client to stand upright
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement is to instruct the client to lie supine. This allows for establishing a baseline measurement of vital signs before any positional changes. Counting the client's radial pulse (Choice A) is a step that follows after the initial supine position to assess changes in pulse rate. Applying a blood pressure cuff (Choice B) and assisting the client to stand upright (Choice D) are actions that come later in the process after the baseline measurements are obtained in the supine position.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
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