Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

2. A hospitalized child suddenly has a seizure while his family is visiting. The nurse notes whole body rigidity followed by general jerking movements. The child vomits immediately after the seizure. A priority nursing diagnosis for the child is

• A. High risk for infection related to vomiting
• B. Altered family processes related to chronic illness
• C. Fluid volume deficit related to vomiting
• D. Risk for aspiration related to loss of consciousness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Risk for aspiration is a priority concern following a seizure, especially when the child vomits, as there is a danger of aspirating the vomit into the lungs, leading to respiratory complications. The other options are not the priority in this situation. While infection risk and fluid volume deficit are important, ensuring the child's airway is clear and there is no risk of aspiration takes precedence. Altered family processes may be a concern but addressing the immediate physiological risk is the priority.

3. The milk code aims to ensure that:

• A. the public receives accurate information about breastmilk and breastfeeding
• B. health workers do not provide samples of infant formula to pregnant women or mothers of infants
• C. companies consistently recognize the superiority of breastmilk
• D. health workers do not accept any incentives from milk companies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the milk code emphasizes that companies should always acknowledge the superiority of breastmilk over formula. Choice A is incorrect because the focus is not on the public receiving information, but rather on companies recognizing breastmilk's superiority. Choice B is incorrect as it addresses health workers' actions, not the companies' behavior. Choice D is incorrect as the milk code is primarily concerned with regulating companies' practices, not health workers' acceptance of incentives.

4. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?

• A. Family planning helps families improve their standard of living.
• B. Family planning reduces or eliminates fear of unwanted pregnancies.
• C. Family planning affords family members time to study or pursue personal interests.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.

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