ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Recommend mental health counseling.
- B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
- C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
- D. Provide information about a support group.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.
2. A client is prescribed clopidogrel. What laboratory result should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Creatinine
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clopidogrel, monitoring the platelet count is essential. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in assessing the risk of thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of clopidogrel. Monitoring white blood cell count, creatinine, or blood glucose is not directly related to the action or side effects of clopidogrel, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
3. The client will wear a Holter monitor for continuous cardiac monitoring over the next 24 hours. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?
- A. Shave the front of the client's chest
- B. Give the client a device holder to wear around the waist
- C. Teach the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours
- D. Tell the client to cover the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the client with a device holder to wear around the waist allows them to comfortably carry the Holter monitor while engaging in normal activities throughout the 24-hour monitoring period. This approach supports the client's mobility and ensures the monitor is securely in place for accurate readings. Shaving the front of the client's chest is unnecessary and not a standard practice for Holter monitor placement. Instructing the client to rest as much as possible does not promote normal daily activities which are important for accurate monitoring. Covering the monitor in plastic wrap before bathing is not recommended as it may affect the functionality of the device.
4. The client admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. The client should be reminded of the importance of complying with which measure to prevent a recurrence?
- A. Weigh oneself every morning before breakfast.
- B. Sleep with the head elevated on multiple pillows.
- C. Adjust diuretic dose without healthcare provider guidance.
- D. Take additional digoxin (Lanoxin) as a preventive measure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring weight daily, especially in the morning before breakfast, is crucial in detecting fluid retention early and preventing pulmonary edema. Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent complications. Choice A is the correct answer because daily weight monitoring is a key component in managing heart failure and preventing pulmonary edema recurrence. Choices B and D are not directly related to preventing fluid retention or pulmonary edema recurrence. Choice C is unsafe as adjusting diuretic doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to electrolyte imbalances and worsening of the condition.
5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse reviews the client's record for which sign or symptom that differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems?
- A. Anterior chest pain
- B. Pericardial friction rub
- C. Weakness and irritability
- D. Chest pain that worsens with inspiration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pericardial friction rub is a distinctive sign of pericarditis, characterized by a scraping or grating sound heard on auscultation, which helps differentiate pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary conditions. While anterior chest pain may be present in various cardiopulmonary issues, it is not specific to pericarditis. Weakness and irritability are nonspecific symptoms that can be seen in many conditions. Chest pain worsening with inspiration is more indicative of pleuritic conditions such as pleurisy or pneumonia, rather than pericarditis.
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