HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?
- A. 80
- B. 8
- C. 21
- D. 25
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.
2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- C. Measure the client's vital signs.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.
3. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?
- A. Administer the enema solution.
- B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
- C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
- D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.
4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the affected side
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.
5. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?
- A. Covering the wound with a dry dressing
- B. Using hydrogen peroxide soaks
- C. Leaving the area open to dry
- D. Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.
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