Nursing Elites

1. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Possibly
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.

2. A newborn with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute at one minute after birth is demonstrating cyanosis of the hands and feet. What action should a nurse take?

• A. Assess bowel sounds.
• B. Continue to monitor.
• C. Assist with intubation.
• D. Rub the infant's back.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis of the hands and feet, known as acrocyanosis, is common in newborns shortly after birth and usually resolves on its own. It is not indicative of a need for immediate intervention. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the newborn's condition. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting issue of cyanosis and respiratory rate. Assisting with intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not warranted based on the information provided. Rubbing the infant's back (Choice D) is not necessary for acrocyanosis and could potentially disturb the newborn.

3. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. The client expels the placenta
• B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
• C. The client begins having regular contractions
• D. The client delivers the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

4. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
• B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
• C. Onset of uterine contractions
• D. Leaking amniotic fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.

5. Thalidomide was marketed in the 1960s as a treatment for:

• A. insomnia and nausea.
• B. infertility and impotence.
• C. Down syndrome.
• D. Turner syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thalidomide was initially marketed as a treatment for insomnia and nausea, particularly in pregnant women. However, it was later found to cause severe birth defects, leading to significant consequences. Choice B, infertility and impotence, is incorrect as thalidomide was not marketed for these conditions. Choices C and D, Down syndrome and Turner syndrome, are genetic conditions and not conditions for which thalidomide was intended as a treatment.

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