Nursing Elites

1. How do integrative models of human health see health factors?

• A. derived solely from physical phenomena
• B. intertwined and interactive, with multiple components such as physical, psychological, and social
• C. generally being attributable to psychosocial problems in individuals
• D. effective only when combined and integrated with alternative therapies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Integrative models of human health consider health factors as intertwined and interactive, involving various components like physical, psychological, and social aspects. This holistic approach recognizes that health is influenced by a combination of factors, not just physical phenomena (choice A). While psychosocial problems can impact health, integrative models go beyond attributing health solely to psychosocial issues (choice C). Additionally, integrative models do not imply that health is effective only when combined with alternative therapies (choice D), but rather emphasize the interconnectedness of various health components.

2. Which bioterrorism agent poses a high risk for use as a potential biological weapon due to its ability to be readily transmitted through several portals of entry?

• A. Anthrax.
• B. Smallpox.
• C. Botulism.
• D. Tularemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Anthrax. Anthrax is a high-risk bioterrorism agent because it can be readily transmitted through multiple portals of entry such as inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact. This makes it a significant concern for use as a biological weapon. Smallpox, though highly contagious, is not known for multiple portals of entry like Anthrax. Botulism is a potent toxin but is not as easily transmissible through various routes as Anthrax. Tularemia, while a serious bacterial infection, does not have the same ease of transmission through multiple portals of entry as Anthrax.

3. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

4. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

5. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

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