ATI TEAS 7
TEAS 7 practice test free science
1. What is cystitis an inflammation of?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Bladder
- C. Ureters
- D. Urethra
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder. It is typically caused by a bacterial infection and can lead to symptoms such as frequent urination, pain or burning during urination, and lower abdominal discomfort. The inflammation specifically affects the bladder lining. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Kidneys are not the site of inflammation in cystitis; they are associated with conditions like pyelonephritis. Ureters are tubes that connect the kidneys to the bladder, and the urethra is the tube that carries urine from the bladder to outside the body. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Bladder.'
2. Adaptive radiation refers to the evolutionary process where:
- A. A single ancestral species diversifies into multiple descendant species due to ecological pressures in a heterogeneous environment.
- B. Two unrelated species evolve similar adaptations in response to similar environments, leading to convergent evolution.
- C. A population becomes increasingly well-adapted to its current environment through continued natural selection.
- D. The fossil record exhibits gaps or missing links in the evolutionary history of a lineage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: - Adaptive radiation is a process where a single ancestral species diversifies into multiple descendant species to exploit different ecological niches within a heterogeneous environment. - This diversification occurs due to the different selective pressures present in various habitats, leading to the evolution of distinct traits and adaptations in different descendant species. - Option A accurately describes the process of adaptive radiation, where the initial species undergoes rapid speciation to occupy different ecological roles and adapt to diverse environmental conditions. - Options B, C, and D do not accurately describe adaptive radiation but refer to other evolutionary processes such as convergent evolution, natural selection, and gaps in the fossil record, respectively.
3. What protein complex controls the progression of mitosis through its activation and degradation?
- A. Ribosome
- B. Cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK)
- C. Centriole
- D. Microtubule
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A) Ribosome: Ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis and are not directly involved in controlling the progression of mitosis. B) Cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK): CDKs are a family of protein kinases that regulate the cell cycle, including the progression of mitosis. CDK activity is controlled by cyclins, which bind to CDKs to activate them at specific points in the cell cycle. The activation and degradation of cyclins regulate the activity of CDKs, which in turn control the progression of mitosis. C) Centriole: Centrioles are involved in organizing the microtubules of the mitotic spindle but do not directly control the progression of mitosis. D) Microtubule: Microtubules are structural components of the cytoskeleton and are involved in various cellular processes, including mitosis, but they do not control
4. A routine urinalysis is a common diagnostic test. What does a urinalysis typically evaluate?
- A. Blood sugar levels
- B. Presence of white blood cells (indicating possible infection)
- C. Kidney function
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A routine urinalysis evaluates multiple components of urine, including blood sugar levels, the presence of white blood cells indicating a possible infection, and kidney function. Blood sugar levels are assessed to monitor for conditions like diabetes. The presence of white blood cells is checked to detect possible urinary tract infections. Kidney function is evaluated by assessing markers like creatinine and protein levels. Therefore, all of the above options are typically evaluated in a urinalysis, making choice D the correct answer.
5. Identify the correct sequence of the 3 primary body planes as numbered 1, 2, and 3 in the above image.
- A. Plane 1 is coronal, plane 2 is sagittal, and plane 3 is transverse.
- B. Plane 1 is sagittal, plane 2 is coronal, and plane 3 is medial.
- C. Plane 1 is coronal, plane 2 is sagittal, and plane 3 is medial.
- D. Plane 1 is sagittal, plane 2 is coronal, and plane 3 is transverse.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the standard anatomical position, plane 1 (coronal/frontal plane) divides the body into anterior and posterior portions, plane 2 (sagittal plane) divides the body into left and right portions, and plane 3 (transverse/horizontal plane) divides the body into superior and inferior portions. Therefore, the correct sequence is Plane 1 as coronal, Plane 2 as sagittal, and Plane 3 as transverse, which corresponds to Choice A. Choice B is incorrect as it misidentifies the planes. Plane 2 cannot be coronal as it specifically divides the body into left and right portions. Choice C is incorrect as it misidentifies Plane 2 as sagittal when it should be coronal. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly designates Plane 2 as coronal when it should be sagittal, leading to an inaccurate sequence of the primary body planes.
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