Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following bones belongs to the category of long bones?

• A. Femur
• B. Ribs and cranial bones
• C. Sesamoid
• D. Vertebrae and hip bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Femur. Long bones are characterized by their elongated shape, with examples including the femur, humerus, and tibia. These bones are essential for support, movement, and bone marrow production. Choice B, 'Ribs and cranial bones,' consists of flat bones, not long bones. Choice C, 'Sesamoid,' refers to small bones embedded within tendons and do not fall under the category of long bones. Choice D, 'Vertebrae and hip bones,' includes irregular bones that provide structural support and protection for vital organs, but they are not classified as long bones.

2. What type of bond is present in salt?

• A. Ionic
• B. Nonpolar covalent
• C. Polar covalent
• D. Peptide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ionic.' Ionic bonds are formed in salts through the transfer of electrons between atoms, leading to the attraction between positively and negatively charged ions. This results in a stable ionic compound, such as common table salt (sodium chloride). Nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, and peptide bonds are not typically found in salts. Nonpolar covalent bonds involve the equal sharing of electrons, polar covalent bonds involve unequal sharing of electrons, and peptide bonds are specific to proteins, not salts.

3. Antigenic variation, a common strategy used by some viruses, allows them to:

• A. Produce toxins
• B. Evade the immune system
• C. Survive outside a host
• D. Replicate rapidly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antigenic variation is a strategy used by some viruses to evade the host's immune response. By constantly changing their surface antigens, viruses can avoid recognition and destruction by the immune system. This allows the virus to persist in the host and continue replicating, leading to prolonged infection and potential transmission to other hosts. Antigenic variation does not directly involve the production of toxins, survival outside a host, or rapid replication, making options A, C, and D incorrect in this context.

4. During the process of oogenesis, primary oocytes produce:

• A. sperm.
• B. eggs.
• C. oogonia.
• D. stem cells.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the process of oogenesis, primary oocytes undergo meiosis to develop into secondary oocytes, which are the matured eggs released during ovulation for potential fertilization. Therefore, primary oocytes produce eggs, not sperm, oogonia, or stem cells, during oogenesis. Choice A (sperm) is incorrect as sperm is produced through spermatogenesis in males. Choice C (oogonia) is incorrect as oogonia are the cells that give rise to primary oocytes but are not the direct product of primary oocytes. Choice D (stem cells) is incorrect as primary oocytes do not directly produce stem cells during oogenesis.

5. During which phase of the cell cycle does cytokinesis typically occur?

• A. Interphase
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. G2 phase

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cytokinesis is the process of dividing the cytoplasm of a cell into two daughter cells after the nucleus has divided during mitosis. In the cell cycle, cytokinesis typically occurs at the end of the mitotic phase, following the separation of the duplicated chromosomes into two identical sets in the daughter nuclei. Interphase (option A) is the phase where the cell grows, carries out its normal functions, and prepares for cell division, but cytokinesis does not occur during this phase. Meiosis (option C) is a specialized type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms to produce gametes, and cytokinesis occurs at the end of meiosis II, not meiosis I. G2 phase (option D) is the phase of the cell cycle following DNA replication in S phase and preceding mitosis, where the cell prepares for cell division, but cytokinesis occurs during mitosis, not in the G2 phase.

Similar Questions