HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023
1. An order is written for an isotonic enema for a 2-year-old child. What is the maximum amount of fluid the nurse should administer without a specific order from the health care provider?
- A. 100 to 150 mL
- B. 155 to 250 mL
- C. 255 to 360 mL
- D. 365 to 500 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, the maximum recommended amount of fluid for an isotonic enema is between 155 to 250 mL to prevent overdistension and potential harm. Choice A (100 to 150 mL) is too low and may not be effective in achieving the desired outcome. Choices C (255 to 360 mL) and D (365 to 500 mL) exceed the safe range for a 2-year-old child and can lead to overdistension, electrolyte imbalance, or other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
2. A healthcare provider is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the healthcare provider explain is the cause of colicky behavior?
- A. Inadequate peristalsis
- B. Paroxysmal abdominal pain
- C. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
- D. A protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Colicky behavior in infants is primarily characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, resulting in excessive crying and fussiness. The pain episodes are often unpredictable and can be distressing for both the infant and the parents. Inadequate peristalsis (Choice A) refers to weak or ineffective bowel movements and is not the typical cause of colic. While some infants may experience colic due to an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), this is not the primary cause of colic behavior in all infants. Choice D, a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins, is not a recognized cause of colic. Therefore, the correct explanation for the cause of colicky behavior in infants is paroxysmal abdominal pain.
3. A nurse is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the nurse integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?
- A. Growth plate.
- B. Epiphysis.
- C. Physis.
- D. Metaphysis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epiphysis. Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. Choice A, 'Growth plate,' is incorrect as it does not specify the exact area where bone growth primarily occurs. Choice C, 'Physis,' refers to the same structure as a growth plate, but the term 'epiphysis' is more specific to bone growth. Choice D, 'Metaphysis,' is incorrect as it is the area of the bone where the epiphysis meets the diaphysis, not the primary site of bone growth.
4. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
- A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
- B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
- C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
- D. The parents should discuss this with their health care provider at the next visit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.
5. A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What is a key assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels
- B. Monitor respiratory rate
- C. Monitor urine output
- D. Monitor for signs of infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, monitoring urine output is a crucial assessment. Acute glomerulonephritis affects the kidneys, leading to decreased urine output due to impaired kidney function. Monitoring urine output helps assess renal perfusion, fluid status, and kidney function. This assessment is essential in determining the effectiveness of treatment and identifying complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to acute glomerulonephritis. Respiratory rate (Choice B) may be important in other conditions but is not a key assessment for acute glomerulonephritis. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice D) is important in general, but it is not specific to the primary issue of impaired kidney function in acute glomerulonephritis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access