Nursing Elites

1. An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts.
• B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility.
• C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the LPN/LVN should implement is to notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. This is crucial to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to address the family's request for hospice care and to coordinate the necessary care for the resident. While reaffirming the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts is important, notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence in this situation. Transferring the client to a hospice inpatient facility and preparing the family for the client's impending death are significant actions but should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure proper coordination of care.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

3. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?

• A. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.
• B. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours.
• C. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions.
• D. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.

4. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “The client’s age is not a factor in the measurement.”
• B. “The scale measures six elements.”
• C. “A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers.”
• D. “Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Oral psyllium (Metamucil)
• B. Oral potassium supplement
• C. Parenteral half normal saline
• D. Parenteral albumin (Albuminar)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Parenteral albumin (Albuminar). Parenteral albumin is not typically indicated for dehydration resulting from diarrhea. In this case, fluid replacement therapy with intravenous fluids such as parenteral half normal saline would be more appropriate. Oral psyllium and oral potassium supplement are not the primary interventions for managing dehydration due to watery diarrhea. Oral psyllium is a fiber supplement used for constipation rather than diarrhea. Oral potassium supplements may be necessary if potassium levels are low due to dehydration, but the priority is fluid replacement. Therefore, choices A and B are less relevant in this scenario.

Similar Questions