Nursing Elites

1. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...

• A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
• B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
• C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
• D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

3. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

4. A client with a cast complains of numbness and tingling in the affected limb. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check for tightness of the cast
• B. Elevate the limb
• C. Apply ice to the area
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a cast experiencing numbness and tingling in the affected limb is to check for tightness of the cast. Numbness and tingling can indicate compromised circulation, and a tight cast may be causing this. Checking the cast for tightness is essential to ensure it is not impeding circulation. Elevating the limb, applying ice, or notifying the physician can be subsequent actions depending on the assessment findings after checking the cast. Elevating the limb might help improve circulation, applying ice is not indicated for numbness and tingling, and notifying the physician can be done if the issue persists after addressing the immediate concern of cast tightness.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications. What should be emphasized?

• A. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods
• B. Eating small, frequent meals
• C. Avoiding meals before bedtime
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing GERD, dietary modifications play a significant role. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods helps reduce irritation, while eating small, frequent meals prevents overeating, which can trigger reflux. Avoiding meals before bedtime allows for better digestion and reduces the likelihood of acid reflux during the night. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are crucial in managing GERD symptoms, making choice D the correct answer.

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