HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues.
- C. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
- D. Delays absorption of glucose from the intestines.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.
3. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?
- A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
- B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
- C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
- D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.
4. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What instruction should the nurse give about the inhaler?
- A. Use it only during asthma attacks
- B. Rinse the mouth after each use to prevent oral thrush
- C. It will provide immediate relief during an asthma attack
- D. Increase the dose if breathing does not improve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of these inhalers. Choice A is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are often used regularly as a maintenance treatment, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid inhalers provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an attack. Choice D is incorrect and potentially dangerous advice as increasing the dose without medical guidance can lead to adverse effects.
5. A client with a history of chronic back pain is prescribed oxycodone for pain management. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication with food to reduce stomach upset
- B. Avoid operating heavy machinery while taking this medication
- C. Increase physical activity to enhance pain relief
- D. Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately.' Respiratory depression is a severe side effect of opioids like oxycodone and can be life-threatening. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs such as slow or shallow breathing, difficulty breathing, or confusion. Choice A is incorrect as taking oxycodone with or without food does not significantly affect its efficacy. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding driving is important due to the potential impairment caused by oxycodone, but reporting respiratory depression is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as increasing physical activity may not always be suitable for individuals with chronic back pain and is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression.
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