HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
2. The nurse is assessing a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Slow the rate of transfusion.
- B. Administer an antipyretic.
- C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion immediately. Chills and back pain are indicative of a possible transfusion reaction, which is a critical situation. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Slowing the rate of transfusion (Choice A) is not sufficient in this case as immediate action is required. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the potential severe reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after stopping the transfusion, but the priority is to halt the infusion to prevent harm.
3. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
- A. Heparin secretion
- B. Transport oxygen
- C. Phagocytotic action
- D. Antibody formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.
4. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
- B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
- C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
- D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old infant. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal muscle
- C. Dorsogluteal muscle
- D. Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants due to its size and safety. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults and older children. The ventrogluteal muscle is more commonly used in toddlers and older children. The dorsogluteal muscle is not recommended for intramuscular injections in any age group due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, which poses a risk of injury or sciatic nerve damage.
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