Nursing Elites

1. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...

• A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
• B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
• C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
• D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

2. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?

• A. Increase protein intake
• B. Limit potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase sodium intake
• D. Encourage dairy products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Blood pH of 7.30
• C. Positive urine ketones
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.

4. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?

• A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain
• B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.

5. After a 26-year-old gravida 4, para 0 experienced a spontaneous abortion at 9 weeks gestation, how should the nurse intervene after observing the client crying softly one hour post dilation and curettage (D&C)?

• A. Offer to call the social worker to discuss the possibility of adoption
• B. Reassure the client that the infertility specialist can help
• C. Express sorrow for the client's grief and offer to sit with her
• D. Chart the vital signs and amount of vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a traumatic experience like a spontaneous abortion, it is crucial for the nurse to provide emotional support. Expressing sorrow for the client's grief and offering to sit with her demonstrates empathy and allows the client to process her emotions. Options A and B focus on future possibilities and medical interventions, which may not be immediately appropriate. Option D, while important for monitoring the client's physical status, does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

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