Nursing Elites

1. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:

• A. Change the antibiotic to second-line antibiotics
• B. Advise the mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
• C. Give the first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
• D. Observe the child at the center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.

2. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

3. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

• A. BSN, RN
• B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
• C. Master's in public health
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

4. A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:

• A. downstream intervention
• B. risk management
• C. primary prevention
• D. upstream intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.

5. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?

• A. Early detection and treatment
• B. Rehabilitation
• C. Health promotion
• D. Palliative care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.

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