Nursing Elites

1. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:

• A. Change the antibiotic to second-line antibiotics
• B. Advise the mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
• C. Give the first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
• D. Observe the child at the center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.

2. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

• A. BSN, RN
• B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
• C. Master's in public health
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

3. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

• A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
• B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
• C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

4. What does the term 'vital statistics' refer to?

• A. The systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses, marriages, divorce, separation, and deaths
• B. Morbidity
• C. Statistics
• D. Mortality

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The term 'vital statistics' specifically refers to the systematic study of vital events, including births, illnesses, marriages, divorces, separations, and deaths. This field focuses on quantifying and analyzing these essential life events within a population. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be related to data collection and analysis, they do not encompass the broad spectrum of vital events covered under the term 'vital statistics.' Morbidity refers to the prevalence of a specific illness or disease within a population, statistics is a more general term for numerical data analysis, and mortality specifically pertains to deaths within a population.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

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