Nursing Elites

1. A school nurse is teaching parents of school-age children about the importance of immunizations for childhood communicable diseases. What preventable disease may cause the complication of encephalitis?

• A. Varicella
• B. Scarlet fever
• C. Poliomyelitis
• D. Whooping cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Varicella (chickenpox), choice A. Varicella can lead to the complication of encephalitis, which is the inflammation of the brain. Scarlet fever (choice B) is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and does not typically lead to encephalitis. Poliomyelitis (choice C) is a viral infection that affects the nervous system but does not directly cause encephalitis. Whooping cough (choice D), also known as pertussis, primarily affects the respiratory system and does not commonly result in encephalitis.

2. An 18-month-old was brought to the emergency department by her mother, who states, 'I think she broke her arm.' The child is sent for a radiograph to confirm the fracture. Additional assessment of the child leads the nurse to suspect possible child abuse. Which type of fracture would the radiograph most likely reveal?

• A. Plastic deformity
• B. Buckle fracture
• C. Spiral fracture
• D. Greenstick fracture

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A spiral fracture is a type of fracture often associated with twisting injuries and can raise suspicion of child abuse. This type of fracture is caused by a twisting force applied to a bone. Plastic deformity is not typically associated with fractures but refers to the ability of a material to change shape and retain that shape. A buckle fracture, also known as a torus fracture, is an incomplete break in a bone commonly seen in children. A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone is bent and partially broken, more commonly seen in children due to their bone flexibility.

3. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

4. You are caring for a 6-year-old child with a possible fractured left arm and have reason to believe that the child was abused. How should you manage this situation?

• A. Inform the parents of your suspicions.
• B. Call the police so the parents can be arrested.
• C. Advise the parents that the child needs to be transported.
• D. Transport the child to the hospital regardless of the parents' wishes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases where child abuse is suspected, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of the child. Advising the parents that the child needs to be transported allows for the child to receive necessary medical care without immediate confrontation. Calling the police to have the parents arrested (Choice B) may escalate the situation and should only be done after ensuring the child's safety. Informing the parents of suspicions (Choice A) may potentially place the child at further risk if the parents are the abusers. Transporting the child to the hospital regardless of the parents' wishes (Choice D) could lead to legal and ethical complications; it is important to involve the appropriate authorities and handle the situation with sensitivity and care.

5. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• B. The drug prevents your baby from requiring excessive sedation.
• C. Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.
• D. Your baby needs this medication to combat a potential respiratory tract infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Surfactant therapy is explained to parents as a treatment that enhances the lungs' ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. This is essential for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) as it helps improve their respiratory function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because surfactant therapy primarily focuses on addressing lung function and is not related to sedation, apnea reduction, or fighting respiratory tract infections.

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