a pre term baby develops nasal flaring cyanosis and diminished breath sounds on one side the providers diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax which pro
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Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.

2. Which presentation of an infectious disease is acquired through an indirect transmission?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Malaria is transmitted indirectly through mosquito bites. Choice A is incorrect as syphilis is acquired through direct contact with an infected sexual partner. Choice B is incorrect as measles can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in close contact settings like daycare centers. Choice D is incorrect as nosocomial influenza spreads within healthcare facilities through direct contact or droplets.

3. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse’s initial response should be to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is trembling and fearful upon admission to a psychiatric unit, it is essential to prioritize building trust and reducing anxiety. By introducing oneself and accompanying the client to their room, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide a sense of security, and address the client's immediate emotional needs. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate initial responses as they do not directly address the client's emotional state or focus on establishing a supportive relationship.

4. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

5. When teaching a responsible family member how to perform a certain procedure for the patient, what is the best approach?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best approach when teaching a responsible family member a procedure for the patient is to demonstrate the procedure. By demonstrating, the family member can visually see how it is done, making it easier for them to understand and replicate. This hands-on approach is more effective than just describing the procedure (choice C) or arranging for practice (choice B) without a visual demonstration. Performing all the steps (choice A) may not be practical or necessary when the goal is to teach someone else how to do it.

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