Nursing Elites

1. Why is it recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2 for an 11-month-old infant with a cleft palate?

• A. “After the age of 2, surgery becomes frightening and should be avoided if possible.”
• B. “The eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure.”
• C. “As your child grows older, the palate widens, making repair more challenging.”
• D. “Surgery should be performed before your child begins to use faulty speech patterns.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is recommended to perform palate closure surgery before the child starts using faulty speech patterns to prevent the development of speech issues that may be harder to correct later. Delaying surgery until after the age of 2 can lead to the child forming incorrect speech habits, which can be challenging to correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific concern related to speech development in children with cleft palates.

2. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

3. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division that leads to the presence of an extra chromosome 21. This additional chromosome alters the normal genetic makeup, resulting in the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is nondisjunction (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Trisomy 21 is not caused by X-linked recessive inheritance, genomic imprinting, or autosomal dominant inheritance. Understanding the specific genetic mechanism involved in Trisomy 21 is crucial for grasping the basis of this chromosomal disorder.

4. What is the most important intervention for a nurse to implement for a child with sickle cell anemia admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis?

• A. Administering oxygen
• B. Ensuring adequate hydration
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring adequate hydration is crucial during a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia as it helps to reduce the viscosity of the blood and prevent further sickling of the cells. While administering oxygen may be necessary in some cases, ensuring hydration takes precedence as it directly impacts the underlying pathophysiology of the crisis. Monitoring vital signs is important for ongoing assessment but does not directly address the crisis as hydration does. Administering pain medication is important for pain relief but does not address the primary issue of vaso-occlusion and is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.

5. A healthcare provider is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the healthcare provider explain is the cause of colicky behavior?

• A. Inadequate peristalsis
• B. Paroxysmal abdominal pain
• C. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
• D. A protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colicky behavior in infants is primarily characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, resulting in excessive crying and fussiness. The pain episodes are often unpredictable and can be distressing for both the infant and the parents. Inadequate peristalsis (Choice A) refers to weak or ineffective bowel movements and is not the typical cause of colic. While some infants may experience colic due to an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), this is not the primary cause of colic behavior in all infants. Choice D, a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins, is not a recognized cause of colic. Therefore, the correct explanation for the cause of colicky behavior in infants is paroxysmal abdominal pain.

Similar Questions