Nursing Elites

1. Why is it recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2 for an 11-month-old infant with a cleft palate?

• A. “After the age of 2, surgery becomes frightening and should be avoided if possible.”
• B. “The eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure.”
• C. “As your child grows older, the palate widens, making repair more challenging.”
• D. “Surgery should be performed before your child begins to use faulty speech patterns.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is recommended to perform palate closure surgery before the child starts using faulty speech patterns to prevent the development of speech issues that may be harder to correct later. Delaying surgery until after the age of 2 can lead to the child forming incorrect speech habits, which can be challenging to correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the specific concern related to speech development in children with cleft palates.

2. On the third day of hospitalization, the nurse observes that a 2-year-old toddler who had been screaming and crying inconsolably begins to regress and is now lying quietly in the crib with a blanket. What stage of separation anxiety has developed?

• A. Denial
• B. Despair
• C. Mistrust
• D. Rejection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Despair'. In separation anxiety, the stage of despair is characterized by regression and withdrawal after the initial protest. The toddler's shift from intense crying to lying quietly with a blanket demonstrates this withdrawal behavior. Choice A, 'Denial', is incorrect as denial involves refusing to accept the reality of separation. Choice C, 'Mistrust', is incorrect as it relates to a lack of trust rather than the stage of separation anxiety described in the scenario. Choice D, 'Rejection', is incorrect as it does not reflect the behavior of the toddler in the scenario, which is more indicative of withdrawal and regression.

3. A 1-week-old infant has been in the pediatric unit for 18 hours following placement of a spica cast. The nurse observes a respiratory rate of fewer than 24 breaths/min. No other changes are noted. Because the infant is apparently well, the nurse does not report or document the slow respiratory rate. Several hours later, the infant experiences severe respiratory distress and emergency care is necessary. What should be considered if legal action is taken?

• A. Most infants have slow respirations when they are uncomfortable.
• B. The respirations of young infants are irregular, so a drop in rate is unimportant.
• C. Vital signs that are outside the expected parameters are significant and should be documented.
• D. The respiratory tract of young infants is underdeveloped, and their respiratory rate is not significant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C. Any vital signs outside the expected range in an infant should be documented and reported, as they may indicate a developing condition that requires prompt attention. Choice A is incorrect because slow respirations in infants should not be dismissed without assessment and documentation. Choice B is incorrect because a drop in respiratory rate in this case was significant and should have been documented. Choice D is incorrect because even though infants have underdeveloped respiratory tracts, any abnormal respiratory rate should be taken seriously and documented for monitoring and intervention if necessary.

4. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

5. A child is being assessed by a nurse for suspected nephrotic syndrome. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Edema
• C. Hypertension
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to protein loss in the urine (proteinuria). The decrease in serum protein levels results in a reduced oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Jaundice (choice A) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions like nephritic syndrome. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a prominent feature of nephrotic syndrome.

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