Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for chemotherapy with a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL
• B. A client 24 hours post-TURP with small blood clots in the catheter
• C. A client receiving a blood transfusion who reports low back pain
• D. A client with a new colostomy and a reddish-pink stoma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Low back pain during a blood transfusion is a classic sign of a transfusion reaction, specifically a transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or hemolytic reaction, both of which require immediate attention to prevent serious complications. Assessing this client first is crucial to ensure prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening complications and can be addressed after the client experiencing low back pain during a blood transfusion is stabilized.

2. A nurse is in an acute care facility, caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which behavior should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for constipation?

• A. Increased fiber intake
• B. Suppression of the urge to defecate
• C. Ambulation twice a day
• D. Daily laxative use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of the urge to defecate.' Suppressing the urge to defecate can lead to constipation, especially in postoperative clients. It is essential to encourage clients to respond to the urge to defecate to prevent constipation. Increased fiber intake (Choice A) is beneficial for preventing constipation. Ambulation (Choice C) helps promote bowel motility and can reduce the risk of constipation. Daily laxative use (Choice D) may contribute to laxative dependence but is not the behavior most directly associated with increasing the risk of constipation in this scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

4. A 65-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacological action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

• A. Suppression of beta2 receptors.
• B. Suppression of airway mucus production.
• C. Fortification of bones.
• D. Suppression of candidiasis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of airway mucus production.' Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, is known to suppress airway mucus production. While corticosteroids can enhance the responsiveness of beta2 receptors, they are not directly involved in the suppression of these receptors (Choice A). Corticosteroids can lead to adverse effects such as bone loss, rather than fortification of bones (Choice C). They can also increase the risk of infections like candidiasis but do not directly suppress it (Choice D). Therefore, the most expected pharmacological action of methylprednisolone therapy is the suppression of airway mucus production.

5. A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 3.3
• B. A client who has acute kidney injury, creatinine 4 mg/dL, and BUN 52 mg/dL
• C. A client who had an NG tube inserted 6 hours ago and has abdominal distention
• D. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.

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