Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae
• B. Use a mechanical lift
• C. Twist at the waist while holding the client
• D. Ask for assistance from another staff member

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for transferring a client from a bed to a chair to avoid back injuries is to bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back. This position ensures that the nurse uses leg muscles rather than the back muscles for lifting, reducing the risk of injury. Placing the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae provides additional support and stability during the transfer. Using a mechanical lift may be appropriate for certain situations but is not necessary for a simple bed-to-chair transfer. Twisting at the waist while holding the client can lead to back strain or injury. Asking for assistance from another staff member is a good practice, but proper body mechanics should still be followed to ensure safe client handling.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide chest physiotherapy for a client who has left lower lobe atelectasis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.
• B. Position the client in an upright sitting position.
• C. Administer bronchodilators after the procedure.
• D. Perform chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is the appropriate action when providing chest physiotherapy for a client with left lower lobe atelectasis. This position helps mobilize secretions from the lower lobes of the lungs, aiding in their clearance. Trendelenburg's position promotes drainage from the affected area. Positioning the client in an upright sitting position (Choice B) would not facilitate the drainage of secretions from the affected lobe. Administering bronchodilators after the procedure (Choice C) is not directly related to chest physiotherapy and the treatment of atelectasis. Performing chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat (Choice D) may not effectively target the lower lobes where the atelectasis is located.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.

4. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

5. A nurse on a med-surg unit is teaching a newly licensed nurse about tasks to delegate to APs. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An AP may take orthostatic blood pressure measurements from a client who reports dizziness.
• B. An AP may monitor the peripheral IV insertion site of a client who is receiving replacement fluids.
• C. An AP may perform a central line dressing change for a client who is ready for discharge.
• D. An AP may ambulate a client who had a stroke 2 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Delegating the task of ambulating a client who had a stroke 2 days ago to an AP is appropriate. This task falls within the scope of practice for an AP and can help promote mobility and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C involve more complex nursing assessments or procedures that require a higher level of training and expertise. Taking orthostatic blood pressure measurements, monitoring a peripheral IV insertion site, and performing a central line dressing change should be tasks performed by licensed nurses to ensure proper assessment and management of the client's condition.

Similar Questions