Nursing Elites

1. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells the client that diapers will be used next time the urinal is used improperly. Which of the following torts is the AP committing?

• A. Assault
• B. Battery
• C. False imprisonment
• D. Invasion of privacy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault involves making threats or using actions that cause the client to fear harm. In this scenario, the AP's threat to use diapers next time the urinal is used improperly constitutes as assault. Choice B, Battery, involves intentional harmful or offensive touching without consent, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, False imprisonment, refers to restraining or restricting a client's freedom of movement, which is not occurring in this situation. Choice D, Invasion of privacy, involves violating a client's right to privacy, which is also not applicable here.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

3. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
• B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
• C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
• D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication prescription, which reads, 'digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.' Which of the following components of the prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. the medication
• B. the route
• C. the dose
• D. the frequency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should question the dose indicated in the prescription. In this case, '0.25' is incomplete without a unit of measurement, such as mg (milligrams). Without a specified unit, the dose lacks the necessary information for accurate administration. Choices A, B, and D are not incorrect components to question in medication prescriptions; however, in this scenario, the incompleteness of the dose is the most critical concern that needs clarification to ensure safe and effective medication administration.

5. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

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