Nursing Elites

1. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells the client that diapers will be used next time the urinal is used improperly. Which of the following torts is the AP committing?

• A. Assault
• B. Battery
• C. False imprisonment
• D. Invasion of privacy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault involves making threats or using actions that cause the client to fear harm. In this scenario, the AP's threat to use diapers next time the urinal is used improperly constitutes as assault. Choice B, Battery, involves intentional harmful or offensive touching without consent, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, False imprisonment, refers to restraining or restricting a client's freedom of movement, which is not occurring in this situation. Choice D, Invasion of privacy, involves violating a client's right to privacy, which is also not applicable here.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I will need to change the colostomy bag every day.
• B. I should avoid foods that can cause gas, such as beans and carbonated drinks.
• C. I need to empty the colostomy bag when it is one-third to one-half full.
• D. I will need to take care of the skin around the stoma to prevent irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Changing the colostomy bag every day is not necessary; it should be changed as needed, usually every 3-7 days. This statement indicates a need for additional teaching as frequent changes can irritate the skin and are not typically required. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding colostomy care. Avoiding gas-producing foods, emptying the bag when it is one-third to one-half full, and taking care of the skin around the stoma are all essential aspects of colostomy care to prevent complications and maintain skin integrity.

3. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?

• A. Assessment
• B. Plan of care
• C. Client history
• D. Medication list

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. When admitting a client, the nurse should document assessment data first. This information is crucial as it provides a baseline for planning care and treatment. By documenting the assessment initially, the nurse can accurately identify the client's needs and prioritize care. Choice B, Plan of care, would be developed based on the assessment findings, so it should come after the initial assessment. Choices C and D, Client history and Medication list, are important but would typically be documented after the assessment to ensure that the most current and relevant information is captured in the client's record.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

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